Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 3)
3.
If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percent.
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let C.P. be Rs. x and S.P. be Rs. y.
Then, 3(y - x) = (2y - x) 
y = 2x.
Profit = Rs. (y - x) = Rs. (2x - x) = Rs. x.
 Profit % = |
 |
x | x 100 |  % = 100% |
| x |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/dPzF10mGsWE
Discussion:
304 comments Page 10 of 31.
Pratibha said:
7 years ago
Let c.p.=x.
s.p.=2x.
profit=2x-x.
=x.
% Profit = (profit/c.p.) * 100.
= x/x * 100.
= 100%.
s.p.=2x.
profit=2x-x.
=x.
% Profit = (profit/c.p.) * 100.
= x/x * 100.
= 100%.
Talatam siva said:
7 years ago
Just take cp 100%.
Then sp=100%+profit.
2 times of sp = 200%+2p == cp+3 (p)here profit only triple not cost price(100% only).
200%+2p=100%+3p.
From that;
P=100%.
Then sp=100%+profit.
2 times of sp = 200%+2p == cp+3 (p)here profit only triple not cost price(100% only).
200%+2p=100%+3p.
From that;
P=100%.
Avinas said:
7 years ago
Can anyone explain me this clearly?
Libia said:
7 years ago
Nice explanation @M. V. Krishna.
Sarfaraz khan said:
7 years ago
Let the C.P be Rs.100 and S.P be Rs.x, Then.
The profit is (x-100).
Now the S.P is doubled, then the new S.P is 2x.
New profit is (2x-100).
Now as per the given condition;
=> 3(x-100) = 2x-100.
By solving, we get;
x = 200.
Then the Profit percent = (200-100)/100 = 100,
Hence the profit percentage is 100%.
The profit is (x-100).
Now the S.P is doubled, then the new S.P is 2x.
New profit is (2x-100).
Now as per the given condition;
=> 3(x-100) = 2x-100.
By solving, we get;
x = 200.
Then the Profit percent = (200-100)/100 = 100,
Hence the profit percentage is 100%.
Anomiii said:
7 years ago
Let cp = x and sp =y so,profit = y-x.
A/q,
sp = 2y,
new profit = 2y-x,
Now, 2y-x=3(y-x),
=>2x = y.
So profit% = (2y-x * 100)/x.
= (4x-x * 100)/x,
= 300 %.
Can anyone explain why it should not be 300%? We should consider new profit or not if we consider old profit.
Then answer will be 100%.
A/q,
sp = 2y,
new profit = 2y-x,
Now, 2y-x=3(y-x),
=>2x = y.
So profit% = (2y-x * 100)/x.
= (4x-x * 100)/x,
= 300 %.
Can anyone explain why it should not be 300%? We should consider new profit or not if we consider old profit.
Then answer will be 100%.
VENU said:
7 years ago
Let The c.p be x
A/c to prblm s.p is 2 times c.p i.e 2x
Profit =s.p-c.p.
==> 2x-x =x.
%p=(profit*100)÷c.p,
%p=( x*100)÷x,
%p=100.
A/c to prblm s.p is 2 times c.p i.e 2x
Profit =s.p-c.p.
==> 2x-x =x.
%p=(profit*100)÷c.p,
%p=( x*100)÷x,
%p=100.
Sandeep verma said:
7 years ago
Given;
2SP=3P (P=SP-CP),
2SP=3SP-3CP,
SP=3CP OR SP/CP =3 (PROFIT=2),
%P=(2÷1)*100 =200 %will be answer.
2SP=3P (P=SP-CP),
2SP=3SP-3CP,
SP=3CP OR SP/CP =3 (PROFIT=2),
%P=(2÷1)*100 =200 %will be answer.
Komal said:
7 years ago
Can anyone explain me in a simple way?
Akshay Phatak said:
7 years ago
If Suppose CP=1 and SP=2,
then gain=1,
Now if SP=4,
then gain=3,
Hence we can calculate profit% as,
Profit%=gain*100/CP=(SP-CP)*100/CP=(1*100)/1=100.
then gain=1,
Now if SP=4,
then gain=3,
Hence we can calculate profit% as,
Profit%=gain*100/CP=(SP-CP)*100/CP=(1*100)/1=100.
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