Aptitude - Numbers - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Numbers - General Questions (Q.No. 3)
3.
It is being given that (232 + 1) is completely divisible by a whole number. Which of the following numbers is completely divisible by this number?
(216 + 1)
(216 - 1)
(7 x 223)
(296 + 1)
Answer: Option
Explanation:

Let 232 = x. Then, (232 + 1) = (x + 1).

Let (x + 1) be completely divisible by the natural number N. Then,

(296 + 1) = [(232)3 + 1] = (x3 + 1) = (x + 1)(x2 - x + 1), which is completely divisible by N, since (x + 1) is divisible by N.

Discussion:
137 comments Page 3 of 14.

AnonymousType said:   1 decade ago
2^32 + 1 = 4294967297 = 641 * 6700417.

Now [A] (2^16+1) = 65537 is a prime.

[B] (2^16-1) = 3*5*17*257.

[C] (7*2^23) only is divisible by 7 and a bunch of even numbers.

[D] (2^96+1) = 79228162514264337593543950337 = 641 * 6700417 * 18446744069414584321.

So there.

Deva.Harshitha Patel said:   5 years ago
WKT,(x^n+a^n) is divisible by (x+a),if n is odd.

Here,if we take x=2^32 and a=1,x+a=2^32+1 divides (x^n+a^n),if n is odd i.e,i may be 1 or 3 or 5 or 7..

If we take n=1,(2^32)^1+1^1=2^32+1 is not in the option,
if n=3,(2^32)^3+1^3=2^96+1 is the correct answer.

Nitesh Jindal said:   1 decade ago
It is not comfusing. ok. try to understand the logic here.
lets assume 2^32 is x.
Now 2^96 = {2^32 }^3 .As 2^32 is x so 2^96 is x^3.

Then x^3 +1 is furter solved by formula
as a^3 + b^3 = (a+b)(a^2 -ab +b^3) .
therefore x^3 + 1 = (x+1)(x^2 - x + 1 )

Pranjal said:   1 decade ago
It's a simple thing;


Let 232 = x. Then, (232 + 1) = (x + 1).

Let (x + 1) be completely divisible by the natural number N. Then,

(296 + 1) = [(232)3 + 1] = (x3 + 1) = (x + 1)(x2 - x + 1), which is completely divisible by N, since (x + 1) is divisible by N.

Madhu said:   1 decade ago
I have one solution.

Let 232 = x. Then, (232 + 1) = (x + 1).

Let (x + 1) be completely divisible by the natural number N. Then
[(232)3 + 1] = (296 + 1) =(x3 + 1) = (x + 1)(x2 - x + 1), which is completely divisible by N, since (x + 1) is divisible by N.

Devi krishna said:   1 year ago
Let 2^32 be x.
Then (2^32+1) = (x+1).
2^96 + 1 = (2^32)^3 + 1.
(x^3+1^3) = (a^3+b^3) = (a+b) (a^2-ab+b^2)
=> (x^3+1^3) = (x+1) (x^2-x+1).
So, (x+1) (x^2-x+1)/(x+1) = (x^2-x+1).
So, which is 2^96+1 is divisible by 2^32+1.
By using the formula of(a^3+b^3).
(1)

Lupu gogoi said:   8 years ago
We are finding the answer. We don't know what is the answer above this problem. Then how to you directly put the answer 2^96+1.

How you know the answer is that? If the problem given you another then how to you solve that. Please explain.

Priya said:   1 decade ago
When we make 2^32 is X,
We try to simplify to get the answer split 2^96 = 2^(32X3)
so it is = X^3
When using the formula for X^3+1, we can identify that number is divisible by 2^32

Vilaz said:   5 years ago
Let 2^32 = x.

Lets take,
(2^96 + 1)
= [(2^32)3 + 1]
= (x^3 + 1) { we took 2^32=x}
=(x^3 + 1) { In the form of [a^3+b^3 ]=[a^2- ab+b^2 ]
= (x + 1)(x2 - x + 1).

Which is completely divisible by N, since (x + 1) is divisible by N.
(4)

Hasan said:   1 decade ago
Suppose X = 2^32 then 2^32+1 = X+1.

2^96 + 1
= (2^32)^3 + 1
= X^3 + 1. .'. (2^32 = X)

Let X^3+1/X+1

(X+1)(X^2 - X + 1) / (X+1)
=(X^2 - X + 1).

Which is completely divisible by N, since (x + 1) is divisible by N.


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