Aptitude - Compound Interest - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Compound Interest - General Questions (Q.No. 1)
1.
A bank offers 5% compound interest calculated on half-yearly basis. A customer deposits Rs. 1600 each on 1st January and 1st July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is:
Rs. 120
Rs. 121
Rs. 122
Rs. 123
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Amount
= Rs. 1600 x 1 + 5 2 + 1600 x 1 + 5
2 x 100 2 x 100
= Rs. 1600 x 41 x 41 + 1600 x 41
40 40 40
= Rs. 1600 x 41 41 + 1
40 40
= Rs. 1600 x 41 x 81
40 x 40
= Rs. 3321.

C.I. = Rs. (3321 - 3200) = Rs. 121

Discussion:
220 comments Page 11 of 22.

Sirisha said:   1 decade ago
How come 81/40? Can any one explain?

SPG said:   1 decade ago
5/2 (since half yearly, had it been quarterly 5/4 or monthly 5/12).

= 2.5 => 100 + 2.5 = 102.5 => 102.5/100 = 1.025.

For 1st amount = 1600 * 1.025 * 1.025 = 1681.

For 2nd amount = 1600 * 1.025 = 1640.

Therefore interest earned 81 + 40 = 121.

KISHOR said:   1 decade ago
For half yearly basis (R) = 5/2 = 2.5%.

(2.5% of 1600)/100 = 1600*2.5. = 40

Customer has rs 1600 + 40 = 1640.

He again adds 1600 on 1st July so 1600 + 1640 = 3240.

(2.5% of 3240)/100 = 3240*2.5 = 81.

Therefore, total interest earned is 81 + 41 = 121.

Deepa said:   1 decade ago
Thank you all those helped me to clear the problem.

KAJAL said:   1 decade ago
I solve this by the simple interest method.

Where p = 1600, r = 5, T = 0.5(6 months) (January amount).
Interest = (1600*5*0.5)/(100*2) = 40 Rs.

Now p =1640(January) + 1600(newly added in July).
So, p = 3240, r = 5, t = 0.5(6 months).
Interest = (3240*5*0.5)/(100*2) = 81 Rs.

Now the total interest = 40 Rs + 81 Rs =121 Rs.

Anandaganesh said:   10 years ago
Thank you @Amit. Your explanation is simple to understand the concept.

Tiger karim said:   10 years ago
It is very easy to solve without formula.

Such as 1600 *.05 = 80/2 =40.
So, 1640 *.05 = 82/2 = 41.
So that interest = 81 and 1600*.05 = 40
Then Ans = 81 + 40 = 121.

Abdul wahab said:   10 years ago
Where the present value (pv) = 1600.

Rate: 5%/2.

Then, n:2 for 1st jan to dec and 1 for 1st jul to dec.

Therefore fv =1600 (1 + 0.025) ^2 + (1 + 0. 025).

= 1600 * 2. 07563.

= 3321.

Now the amount he would have is 3321 - 3200 = 121Rs.

Mon Doley said:   10 years ago
Still in confusion, Check out these:

According to question Rs. 1600 is invested twice. i.e. from 1st Jan to till the end of the year, and from 1st July to the end of the year.

So we have -.

P= Rs. 1600; R = 5%; N1= 1yr; N2= 1/2yr.

So, Amount->1 = p{1+ (R/2) /100}^2 * N1, ie CI calculated half yearly.

= 1600 (1 + 5/200) ^2 * 1.
= 1600 (205/200) ^2.
= 1600 (41/40) ^2.
= 1600 * 41 * 41/40 * 40.
= 41 * 41 = 1681 --->(i).

And,
Amount->2 = p{1 + (R/2) /100}^2 * N2.

= 1600 (1 + 5/200) ^2 * 1/2.
= 1600 (1 + 5/200).
= 1600 (41/40).
= 40 * 41.
= 1640 ----> (ii).

Therefore Total Amount:

(i) + (ii) = 1681 + 1640 = 3321 Rs.

As the same amount, 1600 is invested twice so Total principal = 1600 * 2 =3200.

Therefore, C.I = Amount - Principal.

= 3321 - 3200.
= Rs. 121.
(1)

Abi said:   10 years ago
@Mon Doley.

Thanks, you done a great job.


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