Aptitude - Calendar - Discussion

We have to calculate odd days till 2006 may 28. So it will be time taking process. So for simplifying the calculation process first we will find out the odd days till the year 2000. Odd days in 2000 years is 0. And after that we have to find out the odd days from 2001 to 2006 may 28.

Year Odd days.
1600 0
1700 5
1900 3
2000 5
2005 6
2006 3

Total 22 = Sunday

Explanation:

1700-1600=100 in 100 yrs 5 odd days.
1900-1700=200 in 200 yrs 3 odd days.
2000-1900=100 in 100 yrs 5 odd days.

Leap year calculation 2000-2005.
(1+1+1+2+1) 2000 non leap yr so add one 2004 leap yr so I have added 2.

2006 odd day calculation.

Jan 3 odd day(31/7= 28 rem 3,so take that three).
Feb 1 odd day(since leap year)(if non leap yr put 0).
March 3 odd day.
Apr 2 odd day.
May 0(since leap yr).

Tot 10(10/7=1 rem 3).

So 3 odd days in 2006.

From 2006,
2000 is a Factor 0f 400 hence it is a leap year and has 0 odd days.

Remaining 6 years has 5 ordinary and 1 leap year i.e.,(4th year).
=> 5*1 + 1*2 + 28(from MAY) = 35 days.

35/7 = 5 weeks + 0 odd days.
0th odd day = Sunday.

I had a little confusion in calender problems.

In order to find what was the day of the week on 16th July, 1776?

Ans: Here chosen no. of odd days in 1600 years = 0.

No. of odd days in 100 years = 5 ?

While in the problems like what was the day of the week on 15th August, 1947?

Odd days in 1600 years = 0.

Odd days in 300 years = 1.

How come? Please explain.

How come 75 years = 18 leap years+57 ordinary years.

46 years = 11 leap years+35 ordinary years?

Can any one explain me in simple manner? Please.

Leap year comes once in every 4 year.

So in 75 years there will be 75/4 i.e. 18 leap years and the rest 75-18 = 57 ordinary years.

100 years have 5 odd days,
100 years have 3 odd days,
100 years have 1 odd days,
100 years have 0 odd days,

1 normal year have 1 odd day,

1 leap year have 2 odd days,

On date 1 January 0001 there was a Monday,

One more thing the year containing 00 as a last 2 digits and is not divisible by 400 then it is nota leap year, even though it is divisible by 4.

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I think these points mite help you solving calendar problems.

Hello friends, I am Nitin.

For these type of questions I have easy solution. But you have to learn two things.

1. Year code.
2. Month code.

Year code:

1600-1699 = 6.
1700-1799 = 4.
1800-1899 = 2.
1900-1999 = 0.
2000-2099 = 6.

Month code 0 3 3 6 1 4 6 2 5 0 3 5.

J F M A M J J A S O N D.

Let's take same question.

28/05/2006.

Step 1:

Add 1st two digit of date with last two digit of year.

28+06=34.

Step 2:

Divide last two digit of year with 4.

06/4 = 1 (we will take quotient not remainder) then,

Step 3:

Add Step 1 + Step 2.

34+1+year code + month code.

34+1+6+1 = 42.

Step 4:

Divide Step 3 by 7.

= 42/7 = 0 (as remainder) so, 0 means Sunday.

Can doomsday method be applied here?

Can we say that 1972 year has no odd days?