Aptitude - Alligation or Mixture - Discussion

As the gain is given in percentage, let us assume for 100 ltrs of milk.

The amount of water mixed is the amount of profit we get.

Amount of water is 16 2/3 i:e 50/3.

Amount of milk is 100.

Therefore required ratio = Qty of Water/Qty of Milk.

= 50/3 /100 =1/6 is the answer.

Please could explane me how is come 50/3 ?

Can anyone say why we are taking as 3/350?

@Yuvraj : (16*3+2)/3 = (48+2)/3 = 50/3.

Thats how a mixed fraction is solved.

Blindly assumed like this type problems.

16 2/35% = 50/3%.

So, 50/3/100 = 50/3*1/100 = 50/300 = 1/6.

So, 1:6.

How the C.P of 1 liter milk is Re. 1?

Let C.P. of 1 litre of milk be Re 1.

Then S.P. of the mixture is also Re 1.

C.P. of 1 titre of the mixture = 1-50/300 = 250/300 = 5/6.

As per my opinion C.P. of 1 litre of the mixture is Rs. 5/6 but everyone told me it should be 6/7.

How is it so? Anybody please help.

Let total quantity was x and cost price of milk was 100.

Since we have to sell milk with same price but have to gain profit 50/3% of 100 rupee so here selling price will be 100 and cost price of mixture.

== Selling price - Profit.

==100-50/3 = 250/3.

Now, use allegation by x liter milk o milk that is water.

100.
250/3.

250 : 50.
= 5 : 1.

Now the quantity of water that should mixed with milk will be.

1/6*x that is water must be mixed 1/6th weight of milk weight. That means if initial milk was kg kg than 1 liter water must be mixed to get 50/3 % profit by selling on original cost price.

How we get to know either they are asking milk to water ratio or water to milk ratio that's why it can be 6:1 and 1:6?

Why is C.P. of 1 liter of milk taken on the left hand side as per the rule of alligation in this problem. Unlike C.P. of 1 liter of milk which is taken on the right hand side in 6th sum and other sums?