Mechanical Engineering - Machine Design - Discussion

Thanks for explaining the answer.

If torque is not reduced then there will be no bending moment, Right?

@All.

Acc. to question there should be some relation between bending moment and torque, we can't equate it to equivalent torque, as it states that it can transfer torque of 5kN-m and if this torque is reduced, then the value of bending moment is what, this means there should lie a value of bending moment when the torque is 5kNm and when we reduce the torque to 4kNm what will be the value of bending moment. so it can't be equated to equivalent torque equation, in another way if we equate the max. bending equals to the max. shear, then we can get a linear relation between bending moment and torque. as T=2M, so this can be used in this question, so the answer would have been 2kNm.

At T=5,M=2.5
at T=4, M=2

@Sayad Nadeem.

Correct explanation. Thanks.