Mechanical Engineering - Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics - Section 2 (Q.No. 29)
29.
The loss of pressure head in case of laminar flow is proportional to
velocity
(velocity)2
(velocity)3
(velocity)4
Answer: Option
Explanation:
No answer description is available. Let's discuss.
Discussion:
15 comments Page 1 of 2.

AYON SOM said:   8 years ago
Here is solution to the contradictions, please read this carefully.

Head loss due to viscosity in case of laminar flow in pipe = 32μvl/wd^2

In this question, Head loss due to friction in pipe = 4flv^2/2gd will not be considered because this equation holds for head loss due to friction in the pipe(for both, laminar and turbulent), not for head loss due to 'viscosity in case of laminar flow' in pipe.

Since, for laminar flow condition viscosity is dominant over inertia of fluid flowing, hence head loss due to viscosity is being considered and i.e. 32μvl/wd^2.

In fact, head loss due to friction will also act in case of laminar flow but in this question head loss due to laminar flow(i.e. head loss due to viscosity) is being asked only.
So, in this question, Head loss is proportional to Velocity.
(1)

Muhammad Waqas said:   9 years ago
For Laminar flow
hL =(32μLVavg)/(ρgD^2 ) -------------> (i)

For Laminar or turbulent flows, circular or noncircular pipes, smooth or rough surfaces, horizontal or inclined pipes.
hL =f L/D (Vavg^2)/2g -------------> (ii)

Now, value of friction factor, f is different for different flows
In case of laminar flow
friction factor, f = 64μ/(ρDVavg )=64/Re ------------> (iii)

By putting the value of friction factor (laminar given above) in equation (ii) we will get the equation (i) which conclude that loss of pressure head (hL) is directly proportional to velocity, Vavg (Not V^2).

Akshay said:   9 years ago
4flv2/2gd is a loss of pressure head and velocity is taken.

Whereas 32vl/d2 is a pressure drop and here average velocity is calculated.

Hence the answer given is contradictory.

Nithin john simon said:   5 years ago
Actually Hf= 4flVsq/2gd.

But friction factor 4f = 64/Re.
And Re = RoVD/Mu.
Thus Vsq and V cancel each other gives V on vthe numerator. Hence Hf is proportional to V.
(1)

Suhail said:   5 years ago
Laminar directly proportional to velocity (hagen poisellea eqn} and in case turbulent proportional to square of velocity (darcy formula).

Hrishikesh said:   1 decade ago
I think answer is (velocity)2.
As change(pressure) = row*g*h.

h=flv2/2gd.
So change(pressure) directly proportional to v2.

Chandu said:   6 years ago
The question is about the loss of PRESSURE HEAD, not HEADLOSS (Hf).

So the correct answer is PRESSURE HEAD = 32μvl/wd^2.
(1)

Rakesh said:   6 years ago
Why so confusing. It's simply asking head loss and is directly proportional to the square of the velocity that's it.

Shiva said:   1 decade ago
For Laminar flow :

Loss of head = hF = [32*u*V(average)L]/r*g*d^2.

For turbulent flow:

HF = (flv^2)/(2*g*d).

Kadri Aejaj said:   1 decade ago
Answer is right.

Loss of head = [32u*V(average)L]/r*g*d^2.

V(Average) = Average velocity.


Post your comments here:

Your comments will be displayed after verification.