General Knowledge - Physics - Discussion

This is according to the newton 2nd law of motion because according to this law force = Rate of change of momentum.

I think practically if force is same for both body so more mass body has less velocity than low mass body.

But momentum is product of mass and velocity. Hence more mass has less velocity and low mass has more velocity, so momentum has same for both body.

Impulse and linear momentum have the same value.

Impulse = force * time = (mass * acceleration) * time = mass * (acceleration * time) = mass * velocity.

In question equal forces are applied for the same time, so two bodies have the same impulse means the same momentum.

Dear students, I did it through 1 hour of r & d by a simple method.

The answer is absolutely acceleration. You know that F = ma/mg.

Let consider the two masses under gravity influence, since they are under the same F of gravity they will have the same acceleration because all objects if drop at the same time, they would all get to the ground at the same time neglecting air resistance. Equal or unequal masses will have different acceleration on the surface of the Earth. But the question does not signify whether the object is on earth or in space.

1)According to newton,s 2nd law force = rate of change of momentum i.e.,momentum=m*v

F= M*(D*V/DT)=M*A.
so it is case of m1v1 and m2v2.
m1 is not = m2.
hence v1 is not = v2.
now Newton's 3rd law come in pictutre during impact.
F1=F2 ......(equal and opposite reaction).
Hence m1a1=m2a2.
Momentum1=momentum2.

2) It can be a case of special relativity

Increase in velocity= increase in inertia = increase in energy
Then apply law of conservation of energy again newtons 3rd law.

3) Consider it is case of closed system between two bodies,

You will get the answer.

Momentum.

m1 is not =to m2 but F2=F1 therefor m1a1=m2a2.
m1(vf1-vi1)/t=m2(vf2-vi2)/t;
vi=0.
m1vf1=m2vf2,
p1=p2.