Civil Engineering - Applied Mechanics - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Applied Mechanics - Section 1 (Q.No. 32)
32.
The mechanical advantage of an ideal machine is 100. For moving the local through 2 m, the effort moves through
Discussion:
7 comments Page 1 of 1.
Deepak said:
5 years ago
Given the machine is ideal means efficiency is 100%.
Therefore, MA = VR.
100 = Y/X.
Y = Distance Moved By Effort.
X = Distance move By load.
Therefore 100 = 2/x.
X = 2/100.
= 0.02.
Therefore, MA = VR.
100 = Y/X.
Y = Distance Moved By Effort.
X = Distance move By load.
Therefore 100 = 2/x.
X = 2/100.
= 0.02.
(1)
Anooj said:
7 years ago
Efficiency is 1.
Ma=VR=100.
Y/X=100,
Y=200.
Ma=VR=100.
Y/X=100,
Y=200.
1NdNlY said:
8 years ago
First of all, for an ideal machine.
MA = VR = Y/X = 100.
Therefore, Y = 100 * 2 = 200.
MA = VR = Y/X = 100.
Therefore, Y = 100 * 2 = 200.
Juhi rao said:
8 years ago
MA =distance covered by effort /distance covered by load .
So 100 = distance covered by effort /2.
So 100 = distance covered by effort /2.
Parv said:
9 years ago
Mechanical advantage = output/input.
100 = 2/input (effort to move).
= .02 answer.
100 = 2/input (effort to move).
= .02 answer.
Chetan said:
1 decade ago
As we know that,
MAF = FL/FE.
= 2/100.
= 0.02m.
MAF = FL/FE.
= 2/100.
= 0.02m.
Jadecliff said:
1 decade ago
MAF = FL/FE.
where,
MAF is the force mechanical advantage.
FL is the load force.
FE is the effort force.
where,
MAF is the force mechanical advantage.
FL is the load force.
FE is the effort force.
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