Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 8)
8.
A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| S.P. | = P.W. of Rs. 2200 due 1 year hence | |||||
|
||||||
| = Rs. 2000. |
Gain = Rs. (2000 - 1950) = Rs. 50.
Discussion:
87 comments Page 8 of 9.
Sayed hamid husain said:
1 decade ago
2200 is M.P.
n if x is S.P.
then x*1.1=2200
x=2000
n if x is S.P.
then x*1.1=2200
x=2000
Sayed Hamid said:
1 decade ago
2200 is mark price and interest is 10% then
if selling price is x
then x*1.1=2200
so x=2000
if selling price is x
then x*1.1=2200
so x=2000
Tapan said:
1 decade ago
Thanks ramesh.
Aditya said:
1 decade ago
Ya Sai is right. I have also use the same trick !
Pawan said:
1 decade ago
I am also agree with sai. I also used same trick.
Abhishek said:
1 decade ago
Thanks Sachin....
Krishna said:
1 decade ago
I am also agree with sai I also used same trick.
Rits said:
1 decade ago
Thanks ramesh.
Sachin said:
1 decade ago
Ref: http://www.indiabix.com/aptitude/true-discount/formulas
He got 2200 after 1 year. It also include interest at 10%.
That means the watch was sold at actual price of rs.2000
200 was interest, with cant be taken as profit.
So there was a gain of Rs. 50.
He got 2200 after 1 year. It also include interest at 10%.
That means the watch was sold at actual price of rs.2000
200 was interest, with cant be taken as profit.
So there was a gain of Rs. 50.
Sumana said:
1 decade ago
I m agree with Ramesh also.
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