Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 8)
8.
A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| S.P. | = P.W. of Rs. 2200 due 1 year hence | |||||
|
||||||
| = Rs. 2000. |
Gain = Rs. (2000 - 1950) = Rs. 50.
Discussion:
87 comments Page 7 of 9.
Ramesh said:
1 decade ago
Here one man(lets assume some chiru) sold his watch at Rs 2200 it means some one(lets assume pavan) took that and gave 2200Rs to chiru at the interest of 10% p.a... meaning pavan gave 2200 to chiru so that he should be take interst on 2200 but not 1950 so 10% on 2200=220 but chiru buy 1950 and sold 2200 meaning he got 250 but he paid 220 interst so finally he got Rs30 gain.
So frends I think it is right.
So frends I think it is right.
Arun Kumar said:
1 decade ago
I also agree with sai.
I too followed the same logic.
If it is wrong could some one xplain tat?.
I too followed the same logic.
If it is wrong could some one xplain tat?.
Sana said:
1 decade ago
I think 10% should be calculated on present worth.
10% 0f 2000=200.
1950+200=2150.
2200-2150=50.
Because the rate mentioned is for present worth.
10% 0f 2000=200.
1950+200=2150.
2200-2150=50.
Because the rate mentioned is for present worth.
Pulkit said:
1 decade ago
Totally agreed with mr sai. I have also used the same trick!
Sai said:
1 decade ago
Using the formula sol u got is correct but logically its wrong.
let me explain
for 10% intrest 1950 will be 195 p.a
1950+195=2145
2200-2145=55
So 55 must be correct.
let me explain
for 10% intrest 1950 will be 195 p.a
1950+195=2145
2200-2145=55
So 55 must be correct.
Sundar said:
2 decades ago
@Vidya:
P.W. - Present Worth
S.P - Selling Price
C.P. - Cost Price
T.D - True Discount
Kindly go through the Basic formulas for True Discount.
P.W. - Present Worth
S.P - Selling Price
C.P. - Cost Price
T.D - True Discount
Kindly go through the Basic formulas for True Discount.
Dpk said:
1 decade ago
p+(p*10/100) = 2200.
p(1+(1*10)/100) = 2200.
p((100+1*10)/100) = 2200.
p = (2200*100)/(100+1*10) = 2000.
=>gain = 2000-1950 = 50.
p(1+(1*10)/100) = 2200.
p((100+1*10)/100) = 2200.
p = (2200*100)/(100+1*10) = 2000.
=>gain = 2000-1950 = 50.
Ankit said:
1 decade ago
Suppose that he bought it for Rs 2000 then after 1 year its cost must be 2200.
But the man paid 1950 i.e 50 Rs less.
Actually here we have to calculate that what should be the initial price of the watch so that after 1 year with interest its price would become 2200.
But the man paid 1950 i.e 50 Rs less.
Actually here we have to calculate that what should be the initial price of the watch so that after 1 year with interest its price would become 2200.
Anshu said:
1 decade ago
Hey.
It can be understand like this.
Cost to the buyer is 2200.
This cost also includes the interest too.
So the selling price by the owner would be.
SP = 2200*100/110 = 2000.
So profit = 50.
It can be understand like this.
Cost to the buyer is 2200.
This cost also includes the interest too.
So the selling price by the owner would be.
SP = 2200*100/110 = 2000.
So profit = 50.
Mildred said:
1 decade ago
I think I agree with @Sai, we were asked to find the present value of the gain or loss in that case it would have been 50.
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