Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion

Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 8)
8.
A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man:
gains Rs. 55
gains Rs. 50
loses Rs. 30
gains Rs. 30
Answer: Option
Explanation:

S.P. = P.W. of Rs. 2200 due 1 year hence
= Rs. 2200 x 100
100 + (10 x 1)
= Rs. 2000.

Gain = Rs. (2000 - 1950) = Rs. 50.

Discussion:
87 comments Page 5 of 9.

Sneha said:   9 years ago
I agree with you @Arijit.

Jatin said:   9 years ago
Guys we'll se present value of 2200.
Present value of 2200 = 2200 ÷ 1.1 = 2000,
(Let us assume present value of 2200 be x.
So x+10%of x = 2200,
1.1x = 2200,
X=2000.
Profit = 2000 - 1950 = 50.

Shubham Singh said:   9 years ago
If P = 100 on 10% rate of interest he have to pay I = 110.
So, 100 -> 110.
x -> 2200.
By Solving x = 2000.
So, profit is 2000 - 1950 = 50.

Akshay thakur said:   8 years ago
I also agree @Ankit.

Abhishek said:   1 decade ago
Thanks Sachin....

Sharad goyal said:   1 decade ago
I agree with anurag singh.

Faraz said:   1 decade ago
Present value= (future value x 100) which is divide by 1 + interest rate (10)
but here you change formula
future value x 100 divided by 100 + (interest rate x 1)

Sairam said:   1 decade ago
Thanks sachin...

Anurag singh said:   1 decade ago
CP=1950. sp(after 1 yr )=2200.

Let present sp=p.
then use
SP(after 1 yr )=p+(p*r*t/100)
=> 2200=p+(p*10*1/100)
=> p=2000.

We are dealing with present values
present cp=1950
present sp=2000
=> Gain=2000-1950=50.

Mahesh said:   1 decade ago
Thanks ramesh.


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