Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 8)
8.
A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| S.P. | = P.W. of Rs. 2200 due 1 year hence | |||||
|
||||||
| = Rs. 2000. |
Gain = Rs. (2000 - 1950) = Rs. 50.
Discussion:
87 comments Page 2 of 9.
Krishna said:
1 decade ago
I am also agree with sai I also used same trick.
Abhishek said:
1 decade ago
Thanks Sachin....
Pawan said:
1 decade ago
I am also agree with sai. I also used same trick.
Aditya said:
1 decade ago
Ya Sai is right. I have also use the same trick !
Tapan said:
1 decade ago
Thanks ramesh.
Sayed Hamid said:
1 decade ago
2200 is mark price and interest is 10% then
if selling price is x
then x*1.1=2200
so x=2000
if selling price is x
then x*1.1=2200
so x=2000
Sayed hamid husain said:
1 decade ago
2200 is M.P.
n if x is S.P.
then x*1.1=2200
x=2000
n if x is S.P.
then x*1.1=2200
x=2000
Mahesh said:
1 decade ago
Thanks ramesh.
Anurag singh said:
1 decade ago
CP=1950. sp(after 1 yr )=2200.
Let present sp=p.
then use
SP(after 1 yr )=p+(p*r*t/100)
=> 2200=p+(p*10*1/100)
=> p=2000.
We are dealing with present values
present cp=1950
present sp=2000
=> Gain=2000-1950=50.
Let present sp=p.
then use
SP(after 1 yr )=p+(p*r*t/100)
=> 2200=p+(p*10*1/100)
=> p=2000.
We are dealing with present values
present cp=1950
present sp=2000
=> Gain=2000-1950=50.
Sairam said:
1 decade ago
Thanks sachin...
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