Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion

Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 3)
3.
A trader owes a merchant Rs. 10,028 due 1 year hence. The trader wants to settle the account after 3 months. If the rate of interest 12% per annum, how much cash should he pay?
Rs. 9025.20
Rs. 9200
Rs. 9600
Rs. 9560
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Required money = P.W. of Rs. 10028 due 9 months hence
= Rs. 10028 x 100
100 + 12 x 9
12
= Rs. 9200.
Discussion:
53 comments Page 3 of 6.

Parul mehta said:   9 years ago
In the first attempt, I also calculated the answer Rs. 9222.17 but this approach is wrong.

Because merchant makes a deal for one year and trader is paying before the due date so we have to subtract interset on that amount for 9 months.

The amount that trader has to pay after 1 year, he settles it after 3 months i.e. 9 months before the due date.

So PW of the amount now after 3 months i.e. 9 months before the actual payment as the deal is done can be calculated simply as given in the solution.

Ramesh said:   9 years ago
I didn't understand this, please explain me.

Abhinav said:   9 years ago
It would be 10028/(1.12)^(9/12) = 9210.87.

Yamini.r said:   9 years ago
Why 100 is added in the denominator?

Amit Ambadkar said:   8 years ago
Present worth = not given.

p.w + t.d = 10028 given --> 1
td=p.w*n*r/100;

From above find p.w first
i.e, t.d=p.w*1*12/100 --> (2)
t.d=0.12p.w; put in (1).
p.w=8953.57.

Now from p.w find t.d for 3 months which is 268.605 --> formula given in(2))
Amount should pay = total=p.w+t.d for 3 month.
= 8953.571+268.805 = 9222.17.

M.Raheel.Sultan said:   1 decade ago
CONCEPT OF THE QUESTION:

As the trader is settling the account after 3 months, that means he will going to recognize the amount (INT + down pay) for 3 months.

Opinion: In this forum I've analyzed 2 ways of treating the question, both methods are like a integer line (negative to positive)

1 Method: (Positive one):

10028*100/(109) = 9200.

IN THIS METHOD, Since, 10028 includes (3%+9%+down payment) people is making 10028*100 is equal to cost and then 1002800/109, which automatically lead us to the amount 9200 which includes (3% interest + down payment).

Finally:10028*(100/109) = 9200.

2 Method: (Negative one):

IN THIS METHOD, people are finding the down payment first by doing 10028*(100/112), then finding the interest for 3 months
8953.57*(12%)*(3/12) and adding them.

Finally:10028*(100/112)*(103/100) = 9222.17

IN 2nd method the whole interest is taken out first then it applied for three month as 8953.57*(12%)*(3/12) = 8953.57*1.03.

Conclusion: Both the methods are right at their own places, but 1 method is much better as it do not have double effect and no by dividing 10028/109, we make appropriately, but this figure is approximately calculated as both of 109 and 103 figs has gotten disturbed 8953.57*1.03.

RULE: Only! The total amount is divided by unnecessary Figure to get to the required figure.

Fentahun Asre said:   4 years ago
Please try to prove the formula for P.W.

Nandu said:   2 years ago
What is the correct answer?

Anyone, please explain.

Prashant said:   1 decade ago
In this question if we are taking money.that mean u have to pay for whole period and in this question he paid s.i. monthly.so he want to settle after 3 months....remaining month is 9.it means he will pay for 9 month completely.
10028-x=(x*12*(9/12))/100;
the value of x=9200
am i correct?

Gnana said:   1 decade ago
How answer comes 9200? I have tried in my calculator but it show me 3963. 63, How could this possible, please can any one post here.


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