Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 2)
2.
A can lay railway track between two given stations in 16 days and B can do the same job in 12 days. With help of C, they did the job in 4 days only. Then, C alone can do the job in:

9 1 days
5

9 2 days
5

9 3 days
5

10
Answer: Option
Explanation:

(A + B + C)'s 1 day's work = 1 ,
4

A's 1 day's work = 1 ,
16

B's 1 day's work = 1 .
12

Therefore C's 1 day's work = 1 - ( 1 + 1 ) = ( 1 - 7 ) = 5 .
4 16 12 4 48 48

So, C alone can do the work in 48 = 9 3 days.
5 5

Discussion:
224 comments Page 6 of 23.

St_osagie said:   4 years ago
@All.

Those asking this question: How did come 5/48?

It is called the "rule of flip in time and work" which is how efficiency in piece is derived. Eg. If it takes 3 days for tom to perform a given task. Tom's efficiency in piece is 1/3.
(1)

Nahida Naaz said:   4 years ago
A -> 16
B -> 12.

Lcm -> 48.

Effi 3 and 4.
4 days work of (A+B) :- 4*7 = 28.
Total work - 4 days work of (A+B).
48- 28= 20.

Remaining work of 'C' will do in 4 days
So , 20/4 = 5.
Hence,
Whole work done by 'C'. 48/5.

Harshal said:   4 years ago
First A=12.
and B=20.

Now the lcm of A and B is 60.
than A and B one day work is 7 and he's work together 7*4=28.
now the 28/60 forestation is 7*15.
and renaming work - total work 28-60=32.
Now 32/60= forestation us 8/15 answer.

Tom said:   2 years ago
(A-B-C) = 1/16-1/12-1/4.
LCM value = 48.
A = 16*3 = 48 (3).
B = 12*4 = 48 (4).
C = 4*12 = 48 (12) .

So,
A = 3.
B = 4.
C = 12.

Then subtract value. i.e AB-C.
AB = 7, C = 12.
12-7 =5,
Answer 48/5.

Final answer 9*3/5.
(79)

Anurag said:   1 decade ago
Can anybody explain LCM method like this?

Lets see this simple method,

LCM of 16 and 12 is 48.

So A and B will finish their work in 3 and 4 hr.

Answer C will finish in 12 hr.

Hence 12-(3+4) = 5 hr.

Hence answer is 48/5.

GAUTAM said:   1 decade ago
Answer of C work 5/48 to 48/5.

This is one day work of C.

Example as given in question itself.

A work complete in 16 day so in 1 day 'a' will complete 1/16 portion of whole work. Whole work completed by a is 16/1=16 days.

Ved Prakash Singh said:   8 years ago
A's one day work=1/16.
B's one day work=1/12.
Let C can finish the work in x days hence C's one day work=1/x.
A, B and C together can finish the work in 4 days and total work is 1.
4/16+4/12+4/x=1.
so x=48/5 =>9*3/5.

Billal Hossain said:   5 years ago
Solution:

Let, C did the job in= x days.

ATQ,

1/16+ 1/12+ 1/x = 1/4.
=> 1/x= 1/4- 1/16-1/12,
=> 1/x= (12-3-4)/48,
=> 1/x= 5/48,
=> x= 48/5,
=> x = 9 (3/5).
C alone can do the job in 9(3/5) days.

Dibyanshu said:   3 years ago
@Nil.

It's a fractional rule.

48/5 = 9+3/5.
Let me explain.

=> 5x9 = 45
So, you can say the reminder a numerator and the denominator is also a denominator.
The reminder is 3 and the Denominator is 5.

So, 9*3/5..
(6)

Manish said:   8 years ago
@ALL.

a&b's work for 4 days=7/12.
bal is c work =1-7/12=5/12.

c's 5/12 work in 4 days.

Therefore- 1 work ie 100 % work in how many days?
5/12 in 4 days.
1 in how many days.
4*12/5=48/5 days.
Fraction= 9*3/5.


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