Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 12)
12.
4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x and 1 woman's 1 day's work = y.
| Then, 4x + 6y = | 1 | and 3x + 7y = | 1 | . |
| 8 | 10 |
| Solving the two equations, we get: x = | 11 | , y = | 1 |
| 400 | 400 |
 1 woman's 1 day's work = |
1 | . |
| 400 |
 10 women's 1 day's work = |
 |
1 | x 10 |  |
= | 1 | . |
| 400 | 40 |
Hence, 10 women will complete the work in 40 days.
Discussion:
106 comments Page 9 of 11.
Yyyy said:
1 decade ago
Thanks asish.
Seshapriya said:
1 decade ago
Hi Kaushalay..
why? to confuse with x,
8(44w+6w)=10w
8*50w=10w
when you cancel 50w and 10 w and make it to 8*5
Answer comes as 40.. :)
why? to confuse with x,
8(44w+6w)=10w
8*50w=10w
when you cancel 50w and 10 w and make it to 8*5
Answer comes as 40.. :)
KAUSHALAY said:
1 decade ago
Hi Ashish ! Could you please explain the below mentioned part once again?
NOW, we put the value of M in eq. 1
(44+6)8= 10X ( where did we get 10X? )
X = 400/10
X = 40 Ans.
NOW, we put the value of M in eq. 1
(44+6)8= 10X ( where did we get 10X? )
X = 400/10
X = 40 Ans.
Mani said:
1 decade ago
Thanks evry1 for helping.
Mani said:
1 decade ago
No need to find x value for this question. So don't worry.
We need only Y.
When 10 women works 10*(1/400) becomes 1/40.
So they can complete the work in 40 days.
We need only Y.
When 10 women works 10*(1/400) becomes 1/40.
So they can complete the work in 40 days.
Muz said:
1 decade ago
Anyone plz tell me, how x in 4x + 6 * 1/400 = 1/8 comes out as "11/400".. i get only "11"
Ashish said:
1 decade ago
Hello, Jyothi. It's my pleasure.
Jyothi said:
1 decade ago
Hi ashish. Thanks.
Ashish said:
1 decade ago
Hi all,
(4m+6w)8 = (3m+7w)10...........eq.(1)
2m = 22w
M = 11W
NOW, we put the value of M in eq. 1
(44+6)8= 10X
X = 400/10
X = 40 Ans.
(4m+6w)8 = (3m+7w)10...........eq.(1)
2m = 22w
M = 11W
NOW, we put the value of M in eq. 1
(44+6)8= 10X
X = 400/10
X = 40 Ans.
S.p.velu said:
1 decade ago
Can anyone to solve those two equation in step by step?
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