Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 12)
12.
4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x and 1 woman's 1 day's work = y.
Then, 4x + 6y = | 1 | and 3x + 7y = | 1 | . |
8 | 10 |
Solving the two equations, we get: x = | 11 | , y = | 1 |
400 | 400 |
![]() |
1 | . |
400 |
![]() |
![]() |
1 | x 10 | ![]() |
= | 1 | . |
400 | 40 |
Hence, 10 women will complete the work in 40 days.
Discussion:
106 comments Page 10 of 11.
Harpreet said:
6 years ago
4 x+6y = 1/8 (I)
3x+7y=1/10.
32x+48y=1....(1)
30x+70y=1....(2)
2x-22y=0
X=11y
4*11y + 6y = 1/8
10y = 1/40.
3x+7y=1/10.
32x+48y=1....(1)
30x+70y=1....(2)
2x-22y=0
X=11y
4*11y + 6y = 1/8
10y = 1/40.
Priya said:
6 years ago
I cannot understand this equation.
4x+6y=1/8.
3x+7y=1/10.
Please explain.
4x+6y=1/8.
3x+7y=1/10.
Please explain.
Nayana said:
5 years ago
@All. The Shortcut method:
4m 6w =8days -> 1
3m 7w = 10day -> 2.
(4m+6w)8 = (3m+7w)10
32m+48w = 30m +70w
32m-30m = 70w-48w.
2m = 22w
1m = 11w ---> (3).
Substitute (3) in (1) or(2)
Eq(2)Converting men to women
(3m+7w)10.
((3*11w)+7w)10 = 10x.
40*10 = 10x.
x = 400/10.
x = 40.
Hope it is helpful.
4m 6w =8days -> 1
3m 7w = 10day -> 2.
(4m+6w)8 = (3m+7w)10
32m+48w = 30m +70w
32m-30m = 70w-48w.
2m = 22w
1m = 11w ---> (3).
Substitute (3) in (1) or(2)
Eq(2)Converting men to women
(3m+7w)10.
((3*11w)+7w)10 = 10x.
40*10 = 10x.
x = 400/10.
x = 40.
Hope it is helpful.
(18)
Jigme said:
5 years ago
Hi,
Could you please show me how did you compute to get x=11/400 & y = 1/400?
Could you please show me how did you compute to get x=11/400 & y = 1/400?
Varshini said:
5 years ago
@All.
Please let me know.
How come x=11/400 and y=1/400?
Anybody explain.
Please let me know.
How come x=11/400 and y=1/400?
Anybody explain.
(4)
Khyati mehta said:
4 years ago
Men=m, Women = w.
4m+6w = 1/8 so 32m + 48w = 1 ---> (1)
3m+7w = 1/10 so 30m + 70w = 1 ---> (2)
Now find the relation between m and w by equating 1 and 2.
We get m=11w.
Now put it in equation 1 we get;
4m+6w.
4*(11w)+6w.
50w complete work in 8 days.
10w complete work in (8*50)/10 = 40 days.
4m+6w = 1/8 so 32m + 48w = 1 ---> (1)
3m+7w = 1/10 so 30m + 70w = 1 ---> (2)
Now find the relation between m and w by equating 1 and 2.
We get m=11w.
Now put it in equation 1 we get;
4m+6w.
4*(11w)+6w.
50w complete work in 8 days.
10w complete work in (8*50)/10 = 40 days.
(7)
Vidyadhar said:
4 years ago
For this type of problem, we can use MDH/RW.
M = men, D = days, H = Hours , R = Rupees, W = work.
Note:- In this problem work is done by both men and women.
Total work is same so no need to write in the equation.
The modified formula would look like,
(M + W) x D/W.
(3M + 7W) x 10 = ( 4M x 6W) x 8,
30M + 70W = 32M + 48W,
70W - 48W = 32M - 30M,
22W = 2M.
W/M = 2/22 = 1/11,
i.e women to men efficiency ratio is 1 : 11.
We need to calculate total work,
Total work = efficiency x time.
Total work =( 3x11 + 7x1) x 10 = 400.
Days taken by 10 women to complete the same work is;
400/10x1. Here 1 is the efficiency of women as we calculated earlier.
M = men, D = days, H = Hours , R = Rupees, W = work.
Note:- In this problem work is done by both men and women.
Total work is same so no need to write in the equation.
The modified formula would look like,
(M + W) x D/W.
(3M + 7W) x 10 = ( 4M x 6W) x 8,
30M + 70W = 32M + 48W,
70W - 48W = 32M - 30M,
22W = 2M.
W/M = 2/22 = 1/11,
i.e women to men efficiency ratio is 1 : 11.
We need to calculate total work,
Total work = efficiency x time.
Total work =( 3x11 + 7x1) x 10 = 400.
Days taken by 10 women to complete the same work is;
400/10x1. Here 1 is the efficiency of women as we calculated earlier.
(3)
Devyani said:
4 years ago
(4 Men + 6 Women)*8= work ----> (1) eqn.
(3 Men + 7 Women)*10= work ----> (2) eqn.
Equating eq. (1) &(1) we get,
32Men + 48 women = Work,
30Men + 70 women = work.
Arrange it in,
32men + 48women=30men + 70women
32-30 men = 70-48 women
2 men = 22 women
1 men = 22/2 women
1 men = 11 women.
Therefore, we get.
Men =11 , Women = 1.
Putting this values in eq. (1).
Therefore,
(4*11+6*1) *8 = work.
Work = 400.
Now,
We know that 10 women's can do the work.
Therefore,
400 work = 10 women.
Work = 10/400 women.
Work = 1/40 women.
That means,
10 women complete the work in 40 days.
(3 Men + 7 Women)*10= work ----> (2) eqn.
Equating eq. (1) &(1) we get,
32Men + 48 women = Work,
30Men + 70 women = work.
Arrange it in,
32men + 48women=30men + 70women
32-30 men = 70-48 women
2 men = 22 women
1 men = 22/2 women
1 men = 11 women.
Therefore, we get.
Men =11 , Women = 1.
Putting this values in eq. (1).
Therefore,
(4*11+6*1) *8 = work.
Work = 400.
Now,
We know that 10 women's can do the work.
Therefore,
400 work = 10 women.
Work = 10/400 women.
Work = 1/40 women.
That means,
10 women complete the work in 40 days.
(29)
Ashok Chandane said:
4 years ago
How to solve these two equations?
(3)
Thanveer said:
4 years ago
You are wrong @Kishor,
Right, Agree with you @Nagu.
Right, Agree with you @Nagu.
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