Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 30)
30.
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days. A having worked for 16 days, B finishes the remaining work alone in 44 days. In how many days shall B finish the whole work alone?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let A's 1 day's work = x and B's 1 day's work = y.
| Then, x + y = | 1 | and 16x + 44y = 1. |
| 30 |
| Solving these two equations, we get: x = | 1 | and y = | 1 |
| 60 | 60 |
 B's 1 day's work = |
1 | . |
| 60 |
Hence, B alone shall finish the whole work in 60 days.
Discussion:
97 comments Page 6 of 10.
Sri said:
10 years ago
Please explain in LCM method.
Bala said:
10 years ago
@Varun method is short one but calculation will be difficult.
@Neha Varun convert A's 16 days work into percentage i.e 16/60 = 26.66.
Total working days A+B = 60.
@Neha Varun convert A's 16 days work into percentage i.e 16/60 = 26.66.
Total working days A+B = 60.
Jitender said:
10 years ago
I want any short method of this question.
Pranav Jain said:
10 years ago
What happens if the third condition is implemented saying B and C completes work in 16 days and A works for 7 days, B for 5 and C alone completes remaining work for 13 days, then C alone can complete work in how many days, how to solve this, when another variable is involved?
Rutika patel said:
10 years ago
I can't understand how we can right 16x+44y = 1.
How you get 1? What is the meaning of 1?
How you get 1? What is the meaning of 1?
Neha said:
10 years ago
@Varun how you take 26.66%?
Can you explain me please?
Can you explain me please?
Varun said:
1 decade ago
Total work: 44+16 = 60 days.
Now a does 26.66% work.
Therefore B does 100-26.66 = 73.34% work in 44 days.
Time in which B can complete the whole work : 100/73.34*44.
= 60 days.
Now a does 26.66% work.
Therefore B does 100-26.66 = 73.34% work in 44 days.
Time in which B can complete the whole work : 100/73.34*44.
= 60 days.
Usha said:
1 decade ago
I agree with @Sunil kumar.
Why it has been calculated as x+y=1/30 instead of considering 1/x + 1/Y = 1/30.
Kindly explain, I understood the above calculations but the basic equation why it was altered that I din't got.
Why it has been calculated as x+y=1/30 instead of considering 1/x + 1/Y = 1/30.
Kindly explain, I understood the above calculations but the basic equation why it was altered that I din't got.
Sunil kumar said:
1 decade ago
Why can't we take 1/x, 1/y instead of x, y as one day work?
Sunil kumar said:
1 decade ago
Any easy method better than above all? All are did in same method. Somehow tough above all the methods.
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