Aptitude - Ratio and Proportion - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Ratio and Proportion - General Questions (Q.No. 3)
3.
A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs. 1000 more than D, what is B's share?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let the shares of A, B, C and D be Rs. 5x, Rs. 2x, Rs. 4x and Rs. 3x respectively.
Then, 4x - 3x = 1000
x = 1000.
B's share = Rs. 2x = Rs. (2 x 1000) = Rs. 2000.
Discussion:
76 comments Page 6 of 8.
Iswarya said:
1 decade ago
A B C
3:4
5:6
First multiply AxB as 3x5=15, likewise multiply 4x5=20 and finally multiply 4x6=24.
That is 15:20:24.
3:4
5:6
First multiply AxB as 3x5=15, likewise multiply 4x5=20 and finally multiply 4x6=24.
That is 15:20:24.
Swathy said:
1 decade ago
@Ramesh concept is ok but will it work for all the sums?
Faizan said:
1 decade ago
x is total money. Now, shares of A, B, C and D comes out to be 5x/14, 2x/14, 4x/14, and 3x/14. (5+2+4+3=14), Now Acc. to question, C is getting 1000 more than D.
Which means "[(4x/14)-(3x/14)]=1000" find x from here, which comes to be 14000. Now we can find B's share as (B=2x/14), put value of x, and B comes 2000.
In the same way we can find share of any one.
Which means "[(4x/14)-(3x/14)]=1000" find x from here, which comes to be 14000. Now we can find B's share as (B=2x/14), put value of x, and B comes 2000.
In the same way we can find share of any one.
Shiva Sundar said:
1 decade ago
Very simple logic. Here question clearly saying that C gets 1000 more than D that is 4x-3x=1000 and x=1000.
Then for A, 5x = 5*1000 = 5000.
B, 2x = 2*1000 = 2000.
C, 4x = 4*1000 = 4000.
D, 3x = 3*1000 = 3000.
Then for A, 5x = 5*1000 = 5000.
B, 2x = 2*1000 = 2000.
C, 4x = 4*1000 = 4000.
D, 3x = 3*1000 = 3000.
MANZOOR HUSSAIN said:
1 decade ago
It is very simple Here A:B:C:D::5:2:4:3.
And diff. Between c & d =1000
So share of B = B/C-D*1000 = 2/4-3*1000 = 2000
And diff. Between c & d =1000
So share of B = B/C-D*1000 = 2/4-3*1000 = 2000
Mahesh Nanda said:
1 decade ago
A:B = 3:4.
B:C = 5:6.
According to continuous proportion,
A:B:C = 3*5:4*5:4*6 = 15:20:24.
B:C = 5:6.
According to continuous proportion,
A:B:C = 3*5:4*5:4*6 = 15:20:24.
Abc said:
1 decade ago
The common term from both ratios is 'B'.
So the solution will be,
5 (A:B) :4 (B:C).
In 5 (A:B) , the value 5 corresponds to the value of B in second ratio.
Similarly, in 4 (B:C) , the value 4 corresponds to the value of B in the first ratio.
Thus, 5 (A:B) :4 (B:C) = 5 (3:4) :4 (5:6).
= (15:20) : (20:24).
= (15:20:24).
So the solution will be,
5 (A:B) :4 (B:C).
In 5 (A:B) , the value 5 corresponds to the value of B in second ratio.
Similarly, in 4 (B:C) , the value 4 corresponds to the value of B in the first ratio.
Thus, 5 (A:B) :4 (B:C) = 5 (3:4) :4 (5:6).
= (15:20) : (20:24).
= (15:20:24).
Taha said:
1 decade ago
Anybody can help me out in this question.
If A : B = 3 : 4 & B : C = 5 : 6 then A : B : C equals.
If A : B = 3 : 4 & B : C = 5 : 6 then A : B : C equals.
Srisailamyadav said:
1 decade ago
Hai its so simple.
Here C gets 1000 more than D,
So,
C and D Ratio is 4:3.
So difference 4-3 is 1.
So 1 part = 1000.
Here b ratio is 2.
2*1000 = 2000.
Here C gets 1000 more than D,
So,
C and D Ratio is 4:3.
So difference 4-3 is 1.
So 1 part = 1000.
Here b ratio is 2.
2*1000 = 2000.
Noor said:
1 decade ago
Let the shares of A, B, C and D be Rs. 5x, Rs. 2x, Rs. 4x and Rs. 3x respectively.
C gets Rs. 1000 more than D.
So we take, C+1000 = D.
3x+1000 = 4x (put C=3x,D=4x).
1000 = 4x-3x.
x = 1000.
B's share = Rs. 2x = Rs. (2 x 1000) = Rs. 2000.
C gets Rs. 1000 more than D.
So we take, C+1000 = D.
3x+1000 = 4x (put C=3x,D=4x).
1000 = 4x-3x.
x = 1000.
B's share = Rs. 2x = Rs. (2 x 1000) = Rs. 2000.
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