Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 6)
6.
The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1920 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for Rs. 1280. At what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let C.P. be Rs. x.
Then, | 1920 - x | x 100 = | x - 1280 | x 100 |
x | x |
1920 - x = x - 1280
2x = 3200
x = 1600
![]() |
![]() |
125 | x 1600 | ![]() |
= Rs 2000. |
100 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/0tTd5TwCspY
Discussion:
93 comments Page 8 of 10.
Muneer said:
1 decade ago
Thank you Kumar. Your explanation is so good.
Gaurav bhardwaj said:
1 decade ago
Simplest explanation given by mr vikas kumar sharma.
Thank you sir.
No use of formulas. Just understand the Que. And its solves automatically.
Thank you sir.
No use of formulas. Just understand the Que. And its solves automatically.
Vijay said:
1 decade ago
I can tell in a easy way
here sp1=1980,sp2=1280
in question
profit of one article=loss of another article
sp1-cp=cp-sp2
1920-cp=cp-1280
2 cp=3200
cp=1600
and gain%=25
gain%=((sp-cp)/cp)*100
25=((sp-1600)/1600)*100
by solving
sp=400+1600
sp=2000
the article should sell with 2000 to get 25%
here sp1=1980,sp2=1280
in question
profit of one article=loss of another article
sp1-cp=cp-sp2
1920-cp=cp-1280
2 cp=3200
cp=1600
and gain%=25
gain%=((sp-cp)/cp)*100
25=((sp-1600)/1600)*100
by solving
sp=400+1600
sp=2000
the article should sell with 2000 to get 25%
Mittalvarun2011 said:
1 decade ago
Thank you kavi.
Dharm said:
1 decade ago
If the percentage of profit and loss is same, the C.P. is in the middle of both selling prices so you can apply the formula.
C.P= (SP1+SP2)/2=(1920+1280)/2=1600.
Now you want 25% profit means the new S.P is 1600+25%of it.
=1600+400=2000.
C.P= (SP1+SP2)/2=(1920+1280)/2=1600.
Now you want 25% profit means the new S.P is 1600+25%of it.
=1600+400=2000.
Raunaq(vk,delhi) said:
1 decade ago
we can add both 1920 and 1280 and find there average.then we can take its 20% and add it to itself .
ie (1920+1280)/2=1600(cp)
1600*25/100+1600=2000(sp)
ie (1920+1280)/2=1600(cp)
1600*25/100+1600=2000(sp)
Vinothini said:
1 decade ago
@Vinothini
Listen, no need to worry abt x an all..
We have one formulae:
Gain*100/c.p=loss*100/c.p
We obtain:
gain=loss
s.p-c.p=c.p-s.p
1920-c.p=c.p-1280=>3600=2c.p
c.p=1600;
For profit 20%,already profit 3200-1600=1600is there.
1600*20/100 = 400; profit=s.p-c.p= > s.p=1600+400 = 2000
Listen, no need to worry abt x an all..
We have one formulae:
Gain*100/c.p=loss*100/c.p
We obtain:
gain=loss
s.p-c.p=c.p-s.p
1920-c.p=c.p-1280=>3600=2c.p
c.p=1600;
For profit 20%,already profit 3200-1600=1600is there.
1600*20/100 = 400; profit=s.p-c.p= > s.p=1600+400 = 2000
Soni bb said:
1 decade ago
If profit on condition 1 and loss on codition 2 is same
then, cost prise=1280+1920/2
=1600
after that on 25% profit=1600*125/100
=2000
that prove that c is the ans.
then, cost prise=1280+1920/2
=1600
after that on 25% profit=1600*125/100
=2000
that prove that c is the ans.
Priya said:
1 decade ago
Thank you kavi.
Janu said:
1 decade ago
Thanks kavi
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