Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 6)
6.
The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1920 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for Rs. 1280. At what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let C.P. be Rs. x.
| Then, | 1920 - x | x 100 = | x - 1280 | x 100 |
| x | x |
1920 - x = x - 1280
2x = 3200
x = 1600
 Required S.P. = 125% of Rs. 1600 = Rs. |
 |
125 | x 1600 |  |
= Rs 2000. |
| 100 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/0tTd5TwCspY
Discussion:
93 comments Page 4 of 10.
Sandy009 said:
9 years ago
S.P = Selling Price.
C.P = Cost Price.
The complete problem till x = 1600 is perfect.
At last use the S.P = (100 + gain% / 100) * C.P.
i.e 100 + 25/100 * 1600.
Answer 2000.
C.P = Cost Price.
The complete problem till x = 1600 is perfect.
At last use the S.P = (100 + gain% / 100) * C.P.
i.e 100 + 25/100 * 1600.
Answer 2000.
Sai Reddy said:
8 years ago
Profit=sp-cp=>1920-cp.
Loss=cp-sp=>cp-1280.
Profit percentage = loss percentage(given).
1920-cp = cp-1280,
cp = 1600,
25% of cp = 400.
Therefore, sp=1600 + 400 = 2000.
Loss=cp-sp=>cp-1280.
Profit percentage = loss percentage(given).
1920-cp = cp-1280,
cp = 1600,
25% of cp = 400.
Therefore, sp=1600 + 400 = 2000.
(1)
Avaneet Agrahari said:
5 years ago
According to me, the solution is;
1920 - 1280 = 640,
Gain% = loss%,
So, 320=320,
320 + 320 = 640,
CP = 1920 - 320 = 1600,
SP = (1600 * 25/100 + 1600) = 2000.
1920 - 1280 = 640,
Gain% = loss%,
So, 320=320,
320 + 320 = 640,
CP = 1920 - 320 = 1600,
SP = (1600 * 25/100 + 1600) = 2000.
Rony said:
4 years ago
Hello, guys for clear govt. The exam follows these steps:
Cp = average of both selling price (because gap is same)
= 1600.
New sp = 1600 * 5/4 = 2000(ans).
Cp = average of both selling price (because gap is same)
= 1600.
New sp = 1600 * 5/4 = 2000(ans).
(6)
Twin nepal said:
7 years ago
X%=1920-y)*100/y ---> (1)
X%=(y-1680)*100/y ---> (2)
Were x=profit and loss %.
And y=CP.
ACC qu (1)=(2).
So we get CP y=1600.
Then SP = y+y of 25%===2000.
X%=(y-1680)*100/y ---> (2)
Were x=profit and loss %.
And y=CP.
ACC qu (1)=(2).
So we get CP y=1600.
Then SP = y+y of 25%===2000.
Chandan said:
1 decade ago
Try to understand. According to question.
SP1 - CP = CP - SP2.
i.e. CP = SP1 + SP2/2.
CP = (1920+1280)/2.
CP = 1600 of 125%.
= (1600*125)/100 = 2000.
SP1 - CP = CP - SP2.
i.e. CP = SP1 + SP2/2.
CP = (1920+1280)/2.
CP = 1600 of 125%.
= (1600*125)/100 = 2000.
Raunaq(vk,delhi) said:
1 decade ago
we can add both 1920 and 1280 and find there average.then we can take its 20% and add it to itself .
ie (1920+1280)/2=1600(cp)
1600*25/100+1600=2000(sp)
ie (1920+1280)/2=1600(cp)
1600*25/100+1600=2000(sp)
Ramesh Marappan said:
1 decade ago
Friends you don't know what is cost price first we can find cost price and thus (1950+1280)/2 we get 1600.
So,
Cost price 100 = 1600.
125 = 2000.
So,
Cost price 100 = 1600.
125 = 2000.
Gaurav bhardwaj said:
1 decade ago
Simplest explanation given by mr vikas kumar sharma.
Thank you sir.
No use of formulas. Just understand the Que. And its solves automatically.
Thank you sir.
No use of formulas. Just understand the Que. And its solves automatically.
Vikash kumar sharma said:
1 decade ago
profit=loss=x
sp1=1920
sp2=1280
sp-profit=sp+less
1920-X=1280+x
2x=640
x=320
cp=sp-profit
=1920-320=1600
new sp=1600*125/100
=2000
sp1=1920
sp2=1280
sp-profit=sp+less
1920-X=1280+x
2x=640
x=320
cp=sp-profit
=1920-320=1600
new sp=1600*125/100
=2000
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