Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 6)
6.
The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1920 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for Rs. 1280. At what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let C.P. be Rs. x.
| Then, | 1920 - x | x 100 = | x - 1280 | x 100 |
| x | x |
1920 - x = x - 1280
2x = 3200
x = 1600
 Required S.P. = 125% of Rs. 1600 = Rs. |
 |
125 | x 1600 |  |
= Rs 2000. |
| 100 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/0tTd5TwCspY
Discussion:
93 comments Page 2 of 10.
Gowtham said:
1 decade ago
Hai guys simple method..........
Given sum is 2 selling price
-->first one is profit(sp1)
-->second one is loss(sp2)
so......
given profit & loss value
but.......
have no given the original price(x)
sp1-x=sp2+x
1920-x=1280+x
x=320
original price=sp1-x
so op=1600
then 25% profit
porofit=1600*1.25
=2000
That's all.
Given sum is 2 selling price
-->first one is profit(sp1)
-->second one is loss(sp2)
so......
given profit & loss value
but.......
have no given the original price(x)
sp1-x=sp2+x
1920-x=1280+x
x=320
original price=sp1-x
so op=1600
then 25% profit
porofit=1600*1.25
=2000
That's all.
Gowthami said:
1 decade ago
Thank you kavi.
Susee said:
1 decade ago
Thanks aamir your explaination is awesome.
Janu said:
1 decade ago
Thanks kavi
Priya said:
1 decade ago
Thank you kavi.
Soni bb said:
1 decade ago
If profit on condition 1 and loss on codition 2 is same
then, cost prise=1280+1920/2
=1600
after that on 25% profit=1600*125/100
=2000
that prove that c is the ans.
then, cost prise=1280+1920/2
=1600
after that on 25% profit=1600*125/100
=2000
that prove that c is the ans.
Vinothini said:
1 decade ago
@Vinothini
Listen, no need to worry abt x an all..
We have one formulae:
Gain*100/c.p=loss*100/c.p
We obtain:
gain=loss
s.p-c.p=c.p-s.p
1920-c.p=c.p-1280=>3600=2c.p
c.p=1600;
For profit 20%,already profit 3200-1600=1600is there.
1600*20/100 = 400; profit=s.p-c.p= > s.p=1600+400 = 2000
Listen, no need to worry abt x an all..
We have one formulae:
Gain*100/c.p=loss*100/c.p
We obtain:
gain=loss
s.p-c.p=c.p-s.p
1920-c.p=c.p-1280=>3600=2c.p
c.p=1600;
For profit 20%,already profit 3200-1600=1600is there.
1600*20/100 = 400; profit=s.p-c.p= > s.p=1600+400 = 2000
Raunaq(vk,delhi) said:
1 decade ago
we can add both 1920 and 1280 and find there average.then we can take its 20% and add it to itself .
ie (1920+1280)/2=1600(cp)
1600*25/100+1600=2000(sp)
ie (1920+1280)/2=1600(cp)
1600*25/100+1600=2000(sp)
Dharm said:
1 decade ago
If the percentage of profit and loss is same, the C.P. is in the middle of both selling prices so you can apply the formula.
C.P= (SP1+SP2)/2=(1920+1280)/2=1600.
Now you want 25% profit means the new S.P is 1600+25%of it.
=1600+400=2000.
C.P= (SP1+SP2)/2=(1920+1280)/2=1600.
Now you want 25% profit means the new S.P is 1600+25%of it.
=1600+400=2000.
Mittalvarun2011 said:
1 decade ago
Thank you kavi.
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