Aptitude - Probability - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Probability - General Questions (Q.No. 10)
10.
Two dice are tossed. The probability that the total score is a prime number is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Clearly, n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36.
Let E = Event that the sum is a prime number.
Then E | = { (1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 3), (2, 5), (3, 2), (3, 4), (4, 1), (4, 3), (5, 2), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 5) } |
n(E) = 15.
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n(E) | = | 15 | = | 5 | . |
n(S) | 36 | 12 |
Discussion:
64 comments Page 5 of 7.
Bumba said:
1 decade ago
If we can chose (1,2) and (2,1) (2,3) and (3,2).
Then why we can't chose (1,1) both time. Not only that case we also chose (1,1) as a double event space. Please reply.
Then why we can't chose (1,1) both time. Not only that case we also chose (1,1) as a double event space. Please reply.
Harshal said:
1 decade ago
1 is prime no or composite no?
Mayur said:
1 decade ago
Prime number is nothing but a number which is divided by 1 or itself. For example 5 is divided by itself or only 1. So its called a prime number. 6 is not called a prime no because of it can divide by 2, 3. I hope now clear cut.
Jhansi sri said:
1 decade ago
@Vrushang.
In combination(1, 1) are same, in permutations order is impt ex: (1, 2),(2, 1).
Are same selection in combs we first 1 or 2, 2 or 1 is same comb. But in permutations the arrangement is imp 1, 2 it is different from 2, 1 first 1 is set in the row next second place 2 is set, first 2 is set in the row, next 1 is set in the row.
So I think you are understand.
In combination(1, 1) are same, in permutations order is impt ex: (1, 2),(2, 1).
Are same selection in combs we first 1 or 2, 2 or 1 is same comb. But in permutations the arrangement is imp 1, 2 it is different from 2, 1 first 1 is set in the row next second place 2 is set, first 2 is set in the row, next 1 is set in the row.
So I think you are understand.
Vrushang said:
1 decade ago
Hey if you take 5, 6 and 6, 5 as a different pair then why you don't take (1, 1) and (1, 1) as different pairs because it is first time 1 and second time 1.
Sikkanthar said:
1 decade ago
Finally I found the answer of this question. It is very simple.
When two dice are tossed the total number of possibilities are 36.
Which means 6*6 =36. They are asked to find out the prime number. We know what is prime number, the number is divisible by the same number except 1.
In this concept the possibilities are
(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 3), (2, 5), (3, 2), (3, 4), (4, 1), (4, 3),(5, 2), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 5).
from {(1,1), (1,2)... (6,6)}.
1+1=2, 1+2=3, 1+4=5, 1+6=7 the same way you can get the indivisible numbers expect the same number. So answer is 15/36 which is equal to 5/12 is the correct answer :-).
When two dice are tossed the total number of possibilities are 36.
Which means 6*6 =36. They are asked to find out the prime number. We know what is prime number, the number is divisible by the same number except 1.
In this concept the possibilities are
(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 3), (2, 5), (3, 2), (3, 4), (4, 1), (4, 3),(5, 2), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 5).
from {(1,1), (1,2)... (6,6)}.
1+1=2, 1+2=3, 1+4=5, 1+6=7 the same way you can get the indivisible numbers expect the same number. So answer is 15/36 which is equal to 5/12 is the correct answer :-).
Amit said:
1 decade ago
Why (1, 1) don't consider two times while sets like (1, 2) n (2, 1) is taken two times?
Sowmya said:
1 decade ago
The sample space is a set, so repeated event (1, 1) is taken only once.
Akshay said:
1 decade ago
Why don't we consider (1, 1) two times. Because it will be the outcome of both the dices.
Suvendu said:
1 decade ago
As the question says sum should be a prime number.
So sum must be 2, 3, 5, 7, 11,
So probability should be (1, 1) (1, 2) (2, 1) (1, 4) (4, 1) (3, 4) (4, 3) (5, 6) (6, 5).
So probability= (9/36) =1/4.
So sum must be 2, 3, 5, 7, 11,
So probability should be (1, 1) (1, 2) (2, 1) (1, 4) (4, 1) (3, 4) (4, 3) (5, 6) (6, 5).
So probability= (9/36) =1/4.
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