Aptitude - Probability - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Probability - General Questions (Q.No. 10)
10.
Two dice are tossed. The probability that the total score is a prime number is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Clearly, n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36.
Let E = Event that the sum is a prime number.
Then E | = { (1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 3), (2, 5), (3, 2), (3, 4), (4, 1), (4, 3), (5, 2), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 5) } |
n(E) = 15.
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n(E) | = | 15 | = | 5 | . |
n(S) | 36 | 12 |
Discussion:
64 comments Page 4 of 7.
Ramya said:
1 decade ago
They have left out 6, 3 and 3, 6 then 5, 6 and 6, 5. These also should be included then the total probability becomes 1/2.
Sabin Basnet said:
3 years ago
When we add 1 and 1 it becomes 2.
So, 2 is not a prime number.
So, there is n(e) = 14 only
And 14/36 = 7/18.
That's all.
So, 2 is not a prime number.
So, there is n(e) = 14 only
And 14/36 = 7/18.
That's all.
(3)
Prasad said:
1 decade ago
Hey why we cant take (1,3),(2,2,),(3,1)etc we can take others also na?
So please solve this in easy way.
So please solve this in easy way.
Sweta said:
6 years ago
Are 4 and 6 prime numbers?
4 and 6 divisible by not only 1 and itself, but it is also divisible by 2, 3.
4 and 6 divisible by not only 1 and itself, but it is also divisible by 2, 3.
Kiran said:
9 years ago
You are considering (1, 1) is a prime set and why not you consider (2, 2), (3, 3), (5, 5) as a prime set?
NITIN RAJPUT said:
9 years ago
Thanks sir ,your are brilliant because you give me a platform to improve our objective paper skills..
Sirisha said:
7 years ago
1+1=2 here 2 is not a prime number then please explain why (1, 1) used here?
Explain, please.
Explain, please.
Akshay said:
1 decade ago
Why don't we consider (1, 1) two times. Because it will be the outcome of both the dices.
Amit said:
1 decade ago
Why (1, 1) don't consider two times while sets like (1, 2) n (2, 1) is taken two times?
Sujit said:
1 decade ago
Don't you think we should not count (1,2) and (2,1) as 2 it must counted as 1 only.
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