Aptitude - Partnership - Discussion

Why is Arun's share counted while computing Kamal's profit. Specially when the profit has come after 8 months. Shouldn't Arun now be considered a defunct or non-existant partner and the only two partners that matter now be Kamal and Vinay?

How comes 2/9?

Profit comes after 8 months and Arun left in 6 six months then why should here it is considered that Arun still has a share in profit. Why Arun's profit is not divided in between Kamal and Vinay.

@Shruti you have taken wrong entries. Check it out. There is 8000*6: 4000*8: 8000*8.

Why haven't we taken the ratio as 3 : 4 : 8?

Arun : Kamal : Vinay.

= 4000*6 : 4000*8 : 8000*8.

= 24 : 32 : 64.

= 3 : 4 : 8.

How can we solve it further, when there is no common factor among the three of these. Kindly let me know. My answer is coming out to be:

Kamal's Share: 4/15 * 4005 = Rs. 1068 /-.

When investments of all the partners are 'for the same time', the gain or loss or liability is distributed among the partners in the ratio of their investments.

Let's assume that K is not variable, and K = 1,000.

Therefore, Arun's investment = 8K*6/8.
Therefore, Kamal's investment = 4K*8/8.
Therefore, Vinay's investment = 8K*8/8.

=> Arun : Kamal : Vinay = (8K*6/8) : (4K*8/8) : (8K*8/8).
=> Arun : Kamal : Vinay = (8K*6) : (4K*8) : (8K*8).
=> Arun : Kamal : Vinay = (1*6) : (4*1) : (1*8).

=> Arun : Kamal : Vinay = 3 : 2 : 4.

=> Share of Kamal in Profit at end of 8 months.

= 2*4005/(3+2+4).
= 2*4005/9.
= 2*445.
= Rs. 890.

Thanks.

Gain or profit is same bro that's by we are considered 4005 as profit.

@SPOORTHI.

Because they got the profit after 8 months. So, they will consider it fro 8 months.

How to appear the value 4005. I think it was replaced it 4000. Am I right? Can anyone please clarify my doubt?

Why it is for 8 months and not for 12 months?