Aptitude - Numbers - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Numbers - General Questions (Q.No. 3)
3.
It is being given that (232 + 1) is completely divisible by a whole number. Which of the following numbers is completely divisible by this number?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let 232 = x. Then, (232 + 1) = (x + 1).
Let (x + 1) be completely divisible by the natural number N. Then,
(296 + 1) = [(232)3 + 1] = (x3 + 1) = (x + 1)(x2 - x + 1), which is completely divisible by N, since (x + 1) is divisible by N.
Discussion:
137 comments Page 9 of 14.
Radhika said:
10 years ago
I can't understand please again reply.
Pari said:
10 years ago
Please give a simple method with which one can get answer in like just 40 secs. Please do help.
Bryan said:
10 years ago
Above mentioned are totally absurd. Few of them having tried good but not upto the mark.
Now see this carefully.
We are trying to get our given no. 2^32+1 from the choices given and I tried all d choices. And atlast 2^96+1 is easily broken to get 2^32+1.
Now I take an example to explain it in detail. Since 2^32+1 is completely div by N therefore N<=2^32+1 (less than equal to).
Ex: If 4 is completely div by x then x is always less than or equal to 4.
Now take first option 2^16+1 here it will be completely div N when N<=2^16+1 but wt if N>2^16+1 since value of N is ranging from 0 to 2^32+1 so wt if N>2^16+1 then 2^16+1 is not completely div.
Since we exactly don't know value of N we are checking its range to determine.
Therefore option A is not answer. Now similarly B is not answer not.
Option D is answer because all the range of N completely divides it which is explained how by indiabix.
If you don't understand this answer just try to focus on range of N. And again see my example of 4 completely divided.
Now see this carefully.
We are trying to get our given no. 2^32+1 from the choices given and I tried all d choices. And atlast 2^96+1 is easily broken to get 2^32+1.
Now I take an example to explain it in detail. Since 2^32+1 is completely div by N therefore N<=2^32+1 (less than equal to).
Ex: If 4 is completely div by x then x is always less than or equal to 4.
Now take first option 2^16+1 here it will be completely div N when N<=2^16+1 but wt if N>2^16+1 since value of N is ranging from 0 to 2^32+1 so wt if N>2^16+1 then 2^16+1 is not completely div.
Since we exactly don't know value of N we are checking its range to determine.
Therefore option A is not answer. Now similarly B is not answer not.
Option D is answer because all the range of N completely divides it which is explained how by indiabix.
If you don't understand this answer just try to focus on range of N. And again see my example of 4 completely divided.
(1)
Dibya said:
1 decade ago
Why it will not be divisible by 2^16+1?
As if 2^32 then why not 2^16?
As if 2^32 then why not 2^16?
Ashwini said:
1 decade ago
I can't understand please explain briefly?
Varsha Pathak said:
1 decade ago
(296 + 1) = [(232)3 + 1] = (x3 + 1) = (x + 1)(x2 - x + 1) please explain this part.
Priya said:
1 decade ago
It is difficult. But if you we observe carefully we can get it. Think of it more and more.
Ram said:
1 decade ago
I can't understand.
Chethanya said:
1 decade ago
Please explain in simple method, because I'm from arts background.
Nani said:
1 decade ago
Why we don't consider (x^2 - x + 1)?
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