Aptitude - Decimal Fraction - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Decimal Fraction - General Questions (Q.No. 14)
14.
The price of commodity X increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of commodity Y increases by 15 paise every year. If in 2001, the price of commodity X was Rs. 4.20 and that of Y was Rs. 6.30, in which year commodity X will cost 40 paise more than the commodity Y ?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Suppose commodity X will cost 40 paise more than Y after z years.
Then, (4.20 + 0.40z) - (6.30 + 0.15z) = 0.40
0.25z = 0.40 + 2.10
| z = |
2.50 | = | 250 | = 10. |
| 0.25 | 25 |
X will cost 40 paise more than Y 10 years after 2001 i.e., 2011.
Discussion:
18 comments Page 1 of 2.
Jamal said:
2 decades ago
I did not understand this problem. So I want to know detail about this. Some one help me out please.
E.Shanthi Krishna said:
2 decades ago
Hey, the logic what you mentioned here is right but when I'm calculating by year to year basis the answer found to be as 2013.
But your answer is 2011. How?
But your answer is 2011. How?
Raj said:
1 decade ago
In 2011 x commodity will be 8.20 &y will be 7.95 i.e 0.35 paise more than y.....
Vimal said:
1 decade ago
a+(n-1)d = arithmetic progression
4.20+(n-1).40 = 6.30+(n-1).15 + .0
n-1 = 10;
n =11;
check the result..is it correct?
4.20+(n-1).40 = 6.30+(n-1).15 + .0
n-1 = 10;
n =11;
check the result..is it correct?
MANPREET SINGH said:
1 decade ago
Hey guys there is a very easy trick to solve such type of problems.
Now take y as constant at 6.30 and see the difference in the increase i.e., 40-15=25.
Now increase .25 into 4.20 till it reaches near 6.30. so, in 2010 it reaches to 6.45.
Now, in 2011 increase as given in the question.
As .15 into 6.30 = 6.45 and .40 into 6.45 = 6.85 in 2011 so, .40 increased in 2011.
Now take y as constant at 6.30 and see the difference in the increase i.e., 40-15=25.
Now increase .25 into 4.20 till it reaches near 6.30. so, in 2010 it reaches to 6.45.
Now, in 2011 increase as given in the question.
As .15 into 6.30 = 6.45 and .40 into 6.45 = 6.85 in 2011 so, .40 increased in 2011.
(1)
Narasinga rao said:
1 decade ago
Logic - 40 ps * 10 yrs = 4 Rs (Rs 4.20 + Rs 4) = 8.20 Rs.
15 ps * 10 yrs = 1.50 Rs/Ps (Rs 6.30 + Rs 1.50)= 7.80 Rs.
8.20 - 7.80 = 40ps.
yr 2001
10 yrs
----
yr 2011 Answer.
----
15 ps * 10 yrs = 1.50 Rs/Ps (Rs 6.30 + Rs 1.50)= 7.80 Rs.
8.20 - 7.80 = 40ps.
yr 2001
10 yrs
----
yr 2011 Answer.
----
Moses said:
1 decade ago
Why calculate using 0.40 as the increase after time z and 40 as given in the question?
Renuka Prasad said:
1 decade ago
= {(6.30-4.20)+0.40}/0.40-0.15.
= 2.50/0.25.
= 10 year.
= 2.50/0.25.
= 10 year.
Himanshi sethi said:
1 decade ago
@Moses.
They just convert paise into rupees.
They just convert paise into rupees.
Sankara Gomathi said:
10 years ago
Very clear this answer.
Thank you.
Thank you.
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