Discussion :: Banker's Discount - General Questions (Q.No.10)
T.D. = (B.D. - B.G.) = Re.
%| Arun said: (Jul 7, 2011) | |
| What is the B.D and B.G? | |
| King said: (Dec 15, 2011) | |
| B.D means banker discount and B.G means banker gain | |
| Vikram said: (Mar 29, 2012) | |
| How is possible for Re. 1. | |
| Ruchi said: (Sep 21, 2013) | |
| Given T = 3/2. B.G = 3/25 of B.D. R = ? Now, T.D = B.D - B.G. (True discount = Banker's discount - Banker's gain). T.D = B.D - 3/25B.D. T.D = 22/25 B.D........(1). Again TD = BD*100/(100+RT). From equ(1). 22/25 BD = BD*100 /[100+(3/2)R]. 22/25 = 100/[100+(3/2)R]. R = 100/11. Real = 9 1/11. |
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| Mohd Irshad said: (Apr 17, 2015) | |
| Dear, Can you explain in brief? | |
| Suresh said: (Nov 7, 2015) | |
| (1*22/25)/(1-22/25)? How it comes for 3/25? | |
| Karthika said: (Jun 27, 2016) | |
| @Suresh 1*22/25 = 55/25. 1 - 22/25 = 3/25. = 22/3. |
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| Surakshitha said: (Jul 19, 2016) | |
| Anyone. Please tell me a common procedure to find the rate percent. | |
| Swetha said: (Aug 25, 2016) | |
| Please explain the answer simply and clearly. | |
| Chetanpreet said: (Oct 15, 2016) | |
| T.D = B.G X 100/T X R, Assume B.D = Rs 1, Then T.D = B.D - B.G. |
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| Saleem Khan said: (Oct 23, 2016) | |
| How can we assume BD = 1? | |
| Syed said: (Feb 14, 2018) | |
| Please explain the Answer Clearly. | |
| Shashi said: (Nov 10, 2018) | |
| Very easy method @Ruchi, thank you. | |
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