Aptitude - Banker's Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Banker's Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 2)
2.
The banker's discount on Rs. 1600 at 15% per annum is the same as true discount on Rs. 1680 for the same time and at the same rate. The time is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
S.I. on Rs. 1600 = T.D. on Rs. 1680.
Rs. 1600 is the P.W. of Rs. 1680, i.e., Rs. 80 is on Rs. 1600 at 15%.
| Time = |
 |
100 x 80 |  year |
= | 1 | year = 4 months. |
| 1600 x 15 | 3 |
Discussion:
33 comments Page 3 of 4.
Jiten said:
9 years ago
What is S.I?
Shanthi said:
8 years ago
I'm not getting the answer. Can anyone explain me clearly?
ABCD said:
8 years ago
@Jiten.
S.I is Simple Interest.
S.I is Simple Interest.
Navaraj said:
7 years ago
Why 1600 is taken in time calculation?
If Td is 1680.
If Td is 1680.
Mithun pk said:
7 years ago
I think T.D is 1600 and B.D is 1680.
Then based on T.D formula this can be solved.
Then based on T.D formula this can be solved.
Saurav said:
7 years ago
How did 240 come? Please explain.
(1)
S. Jamesanderson said:
7 years ago
Please explain the solution with the shortcut method.
Mahesh said:
6 years ago
1600-15% = 240
1680-1600 = 80
80/240 = 1/3 *"4/12 = 1/3" * 4 is no of months /12 is total months,
So, the answer is = 4 Months.
1680-1600 = 80
80/240 = 1/3 *"4/12 = 1/3" * 4 is no of months /12 is total months,
So, the answer is = 4 Months.
(2)
Jasmine said:
5 years ago
What is the formula for time? Please, anyone, tell me.
(2)
Nahwera David said:
4 years ago
Anyone help me to get it clearly?
(1)
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