Aptitude - Alligation or Mixture - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Alligation or Mixture - General Questions (Q.No. 6)
6.
A dishonest milkman professes to sell his milk at cost price but he mixes it with water and thereby gains 25%. The percentage of water in the mixture is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let C.P. of 1 litre milk be Re. 1
Then, S.P. of 1 litre of mixture = Re. 1, Gain = 25%.
C.P. of 1 litre mixture = Re. | ![]() |
100 | x 1 | ![]() |
= | 4 |
125 | 5 |
By the rule of alligation, we have:
C.P. of 1 litre of milk C.P. of 1 litre of water | |||||
Re. 1 | Mean Price
| 0 | |||
|
|
![]() |
4 | : | 1 | = 4 : 1. |
5 | 5 |
Hence, percentage of water in the mixture = | ![]() |
1 | x 100 | ![]() |
= 20%. |
5 |
Discussion:
65 comments Page 4 of 7.
Thamaraikannan said:
1 decade ago
100:gain%.
So 100:25 (this meant for 100% we get 25% profit).
Now 4:1 (for every 4l milk 1l water to be added).
Ratio wise 1l. Then percentage wise (1/5)*100 = 20%.
So 100:25 (this meant for 100% we get 25% profit).
Now 4:1 (for every 4l milk 1l water to be added).
Ratio wise 1l. Then percentage wise (1/5)*100 = 20%.
Moutushi Saha said:
3 years ago
How do they determine 4/5 is the mean price of milk and water? We have found 4/5 as the cost price of the mixture. Then how it become the mean price?
Please explain.
Please explain.
(4)
Sreyansh joshi said:
10 years ago
I am still not getting this according to alligation rule the cheaper material should be used and in this solution they have considered milk as the cheaper material.
Krishna said:
9 years ago
SP of 1 litre milk is Rs. 1, then why is it written in the allegation chart that CP of 1 litre milk is Rs. 1? Shouldn't CP of 1 litre milk be 4/5? Please explain.
Bathi said:
7 years ago
x liters of milk ------- re.1.
(x+y) liters of mixture -------- re.1.25 where y is for water.
(x+y)/x = 1.25/1.
y/x = 1/4.
y = 1/5 * 100 = 20%.
(x+y) liters of mixture -------- re.1.25 where y is for water.
(x+y)/x = 1.25/1.
y/x = 1/4.
y = 1/5 * 100 = 20%.
Vihan said:
6 years ago
If the price of milk is 15% more than that of water than the price of water is how much percent less than that of milk? Can anyone solve this?
Palash said:
6 years ago
Let 1 lt milk price is rs1 and x lt water mixed.
Then CP of (1-x)lt milk is rs(1-x) and SP is rs 1.
So, x/ (1-x) = 25% implies X= 20%.
Then CP of (1-x)lt milk is rs(1-x) and SP is rs 1.
So, x/ (1-x) = 25% implies X= 20%.
Ramakrishana said:
10 years ago
So friends when we adding the water it becomes 125 liters.
If 125 ---> 100%.
Then 25 is 25 ---> will give you 100/125*25=20%.
If 125 ---> 100%.
Then 25 is 25 ---> will give you 100/125*25=20%.
Amir said:
1 decade ago
@amir:
"milk:water==100:x"
where x is gain%
Soln:
m:w==100:25==4:1
that means water percentage is=
1/5*100=20%
answer==20
"milk:water==100:x"
where x is gain%
Soln:
m:w==100:25==4:1
that means water percentage is=
1/5*100=20%
answer==20
Vijay said:
9 years ago
CP = 100
Added cp = 25
total = 125
Non genu = 100/125 = 4/5.
Equate value must less than = .1
profit =1 - 4/5,
1/5 = 20%.
Added cp = 25
total = 125
Non genu = 100/125 = 4/5.
Equate value must less than = .1
profit =1 - 4/5,
1/5 = 20%.
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