Please explain the use of -1 in C.I calculation. I think here we have to subtract the principle at the back. But u use the value '1' here, I can't understand Wat u r did.
But i got the same answer by using the formula.
C.I = (Amount - Principle)
Where
Amount = {P x (1 + (R/100)^N)} - P
P = 12000.
Dude here principle is Rs. 12000, so amount = P(1+r/100)^t
C.I = amount - principle i.e., p((1+r/100)^t )-p
Removing 'p' common factor we get:
p((1+(R/100)^T)-1)
HERE 1200 IS REMOVED AS COMMON FACTOR SINCE IT IS THE VALUE OF P.
Priya said:
(Sat, Jul 31, 2010 12:31:47 AM)
Thanks Jeeva. Now I also clear abut this problem.
Anurag said:
(Mon, Oct 18, 2010 01:58:05 AM)
Thanks a lot. Now it became very easy.
Kusum said:
(Sat, Feb 12, 2011 10:41:53 AM)
Any one tel me how we got R value as 10?
Amit said:
(Mon, Apr 18, 2011 05:23:26 AM)
@Kusum
Simple interest formula
SI = PRN / 100
So, SI * 100 = PRN which derives new formula for R as
R = (SI * 100) / PN
Let P = Rs. 100. Then, S.I. Rs. 60 and T = 6 years.
Put all this into simple interest formula
R = (100 x 60 ) / 100 x 6 = 10% p.a.
Hope you will get it :)
Karthi said:
(Wed, Aug 3, 2011 04:52:54 PM)
How we get P = Rs.100 and S.I = Rs. 60 ?
Arush said:
(Thu, Sep 15, 2011 10:01:06 PM)
Thanks jeeva & subash.
Vasanth said:
(Wed, Oct 5, 2011 03:21:22 PM)
Why we should take p value as 100?
Anmol said:
(Fri, Oct 21, 2011 08:31:39 PM)
@Karthi & Vasanth: you can take any value of P instead of 100.
100 is taken just for simplicity of calculation.
Now, as there is 60% rise in principal in 6 years
therefore, Net amount after 6 years, A= P+ 60% of P =1.6P
therefore interest,I= 1.6P-P= .6P
using SI formula, I= PTR/100
so, 0.6P= P*6*R/100
-> 60=6R
-> R=10%
Shalini said:
(Mon, Nov 28, 2011 11:25:02 PM)
I'm totally confused with these problems.
When compound interest is done by individual formulas the answer shows wrong.
Poorvajain said:
(Mon, Jan 2, 2012 08:42:45 PM)
CI=AMT-PRINCIPLE
So in this question princple is 100 and u hve taken principle 1 why so is it wrong.
R =
