Mechanical Engineering - Engineering Mechanics - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Engineering Mechanics - Section 1 (Q.No. 3)
3.
Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on the floor. One of the ball with velocity v is made to struck the second ball. Both the balls after impact will move with a velocity
Discussion:
70 comments Page 3 of 7.
Uzzal said:
9 years ago
mv1_+mv2 = mv'1+mv'2.
m is equal.
v1+0 = 2v' because v1 = 0 and v'1 = v'2.
v' = v/2.
m is equal.
v1+0 = 2v' because v1 = 0 and v'1 = v'2.
v' = v/2.
Deepak said:
10 years ago
The total energy of momentum of force is directly impact v = 1/v, it is impact force.
Jay said:
1 decade ago
For two perfectly elastic body, the velocity after collided become same i.e. velocity 1st ball after collide equal to velocity of 2nd ball after collide.
So final velocity of the ball half of the initial velocity. It will get from the equation of conservation of momentum after and before.
So final velocity of the ball half of the initial velocity. It will get from the equation of conservation of momentum after and before.
Pritam Samanta said:
9 years ago
We know co-efficient of restitution,
e=(u1-v1)/(v2-u2)
Where u1,u2 are the initial velocities and v1,v2 are the final velocities.
For perfectly elastic material e=1,
And u1=0, u2= v and v1=v2,
So the eq becomes,
1=(0-v1)/(v2-v).
or, v2-v=-v1.
or, 2v1=v.
or, v1=v2=v/2.
e=(u1-v1)/(v2-u2)
Where u1,u2 are the initial velocities and v1,v2 are the final velocities.
For perfectly elastic material e=1,
And u1=0, u2= v and v1=v2,
So the eq becomes,
1=(0-v1)/(v2-v).
or, v2-v=-v1.
or, 2v1=v.
or, v1=v2=v/2.
Dhanendra sahu said:
8 years ago
Velocity of the first particle of same mass after collision gets 0 and vel of sec particle after collision assumes the velocity of the first particle before collision( ie. V2 =U1, V1=0, U2=0,)
For a perfect elastic body property.
For a perfect elastic body property.
Johirul said:
8 years ago
Ans. : V/2 is correct.
Suraj said:
8 years ago
@ALL.
It is the fact is it is a perfectly elastic collision so no kinetic energy losses. So the velocity of the 1st body will transfer to next body. And the answer will be V.
It is the fact is it is a perfectly elastic collision so no kinetic energy losses. So the velocity of the 1st body will transfer to next body. And the answer will be V.
Dhruv said:
8 years ago
We can not take velocity only based on momentum. we need to take in condition loss of kinetic energy which is zero in this case.
So we have two equation
V = V1 + V2 --------------> 1
Square of V =Square of V1 +Square of V2 --------------> 2
Solve this, you will get V1=0 and V2=V.
So we have two equation
V = V1 + V2 --------------> 1
Square of V =Square of V1 +Square of V2 --------------> 2
Solve this, you will get V1=0 and V2=V.
Sk Yadav said:
8 years ago
If the second mass it at rest initially. After collision 1st mass gets rest second mass move with a velocity ' V'. NOT By both ' V/2'.
Sandeep chaudhary said:
8 years ago
Cconservation of momentam.
mv=m1v1+m2v2.
mv=mv+mv.
v=v/2.
mv=m1v1+m2v2.
mv=mv+mv.
v=v/2.
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