Logical Reasoning - Statement and Assumption - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Statement and Assumption - Section 1 (Q.No. 32)
Directions to Solve
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
- (A) If only assumption I is implicit
- (B) If only assumption II is implicit
- (C) If either I or II is implicit
- (D) If neither I nor II is implicit
- (E) If both I and II are implicit.
32.
Statement: All existing inequalities can be reduced, if not utterly eradicated, by action of governments or by revolutionary change of government.
Assumptions:
- Inequality is a man-made phenomenon.
- No person would voluntarily part with what he possesses.
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Since inequality can be reduced, it means that it is not natural but created. So, I is implicit. Nothing is mentioned about people's response. So, II is not implicit.
Discussion:
13 comments Page 2 of 2.
Jem said:
5 years ago
Not understanding it clearly. Please someone explain it in clear.
Rishika said:
5 years ago
Both statements are implicit will be correct because it is said that action of government Or revolutionary change, both of them can be done by man so inequality is also created by man purily based on assumptions given.
Anonymous said:
2 years ago
Both assumptions are implicit and (E) should be correct.
Some people in the comments are arguing that humans can reduce natural phenomena so the explanation provided is wrong, and thus Assumption 1 is not implicit.
First, I have to make it clear that their reasons fail to support their argument. While I agree that the provided logic is flawed, the assumption itself is not wrong. They fell into this rabbit hole because of the flawed logic in the given explanation. Human's capability to reduce natural phenomena is NOT RELEVANT to the idea that social inequality is man-made. Humans' capability to eradicate diseases or locust swarms has nothing to do with acknowledging that inequality in our society is man-made. Diseases (disease-causing germs, to be specific) and locusts are living beings that are naturally and physically present in the universe.
Inequality is a concept that people decide to use in defining a particular social interaction. You must understand this difference before trying to understand why Assumption 1 is implicit.
The first assumption is implicit because inequality is a consequence of human behaviour. Social inequality is a concept, an idea, that HUMANS CAME UP WITH to describe phenomena observed in humans. It is a belief that humans think there is, whenever they are treated unjustly to their standard. Notice the difference in the perception of inequality among people. Some might believe that feeding the homeless is inequality because they are getting free food without any effort. Some will think otherwise. This subjectivity is present because everyone formulates their concept of inequality, a completely man-made belief. To eradicate this concept, the belief of "inequality" in humans must be altered by the actions of a human body, such as the government. Simply put, "inequality" is a man-made concept in itself, thus the original statement implies Assumption 1.
Lastly, if eradication of inequality requires action by governments, it means that people need external pressure to change their behaviour. The original statement suggests that inequality won't be reduced without the government's support, implying that the people are not willing to give up their possessions unless the government forces them. With this in mind, Assumption 2 is also implicit in the original statement.
Some people in the comments are arguing that humans can reduce natural phenomena so the explanation provided is wrong, and thus Assumption 1 is not implicit.
First, I have to make it clear that their reasons fail to support their argument. While I agree that the provided logic is flawed, the assumption itself is not wrong. They fell into this rabbit hole because of the flawed logic in the given explanation. Human's capability to reduce natural phenomena is NOT RELEVANT to the idea that social inequality is man-made. Humans' capability to eradicate diseases or locust swarms has nothing to do with acknowledging that inequality in our society is man-made. Diseases (disease-causing germs, to be specific) and locusts are living beings that are naturally and physically present in the universe.
Inequality is a concept that people decide to use in defining a particular social interaction. You must understand this difference before trying to understand why Assumption 1 is implicit.
The first assumption is implicit because inequality is a consequence of human behaviour. Social inequality is a concept, an idea, that HUMANS CAME UP WITH to describe phenomena observed in humans. It is a belief that humans think there is, whenever they are treated unjustly to their standard. Notice the difference in the perception of inequality among people. Some might believe that feeding the homeless is inequality because they are getting free food without any effort. Some will think otherwise. This subjectivity is present because everyone formulates their concept of inequality, a completely man-made belief. To eradicate this concept, the belief of "inequality" in humans must be altered by the actions of a human body, such as the government. Simply put, "inequality" is a man-made concept in itself, thus the original statement implies Assumption 1.
Lastly, if eradication of inequality requires action by governments, it means that people need external pressure to change their behaviour. The original statement suggests that inequality won't be reduced without the government's support, implying that the people are not willing to give up their possessions unless the government forces them. With this in mind, Assumption 2 is also implicit in the original statement.
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