Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 1)
1.
A man purchased a cow for Rs. 3000 and sold it the same day for Rs. 3600, allowing the buyer a credit of 2 years. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, then the man has a gain of:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. = Rs. 3000.
| S.P. = Rs. |  |
3600 x 100 |  |
= Rs. 3000. |
| 100 + (10 x 2) |
Gain = 0%.
Discussion:
59 comments Page 4 of 6.
Dhruv Mahajan said:
1 decade ago
On what basis did we decide that we need to calculate Simple Interest and not Compound Interest?
Shalini Negi said:
8 years ago
What do you mean bu credit " allowing the buyer a credit of 2 years"? Please explain me.
(3)
HELA said:
10 years ago
A = Pw+TD.
TD = Pw.R.N/100.
A = Pw +Pw.R.N/100.
A = Pw(1+R.N/1000.
Pw = A*100/100 +R.N.
TD = Pw.R.N/100.
A = Pw +Pw.R.N/100.
A = Pw(1+R.N/1000.
Pw = A*100/100 +R.N.
Abhilasha said:
7 years ago
The formula used is.
True discount = {Banker's discount x 100}/{100+ (rate x time)}.
True discount = {Banker's discount x 100}/{100+ (rate x time)}.
(5)
Tamizharasi said:
9 years ago
@Jiten.
Your explanation is very useful to understand the problem. Thank you, sir.
Your explanation is very useful to understand the problem. Thank you, sir.
Arun Edathara said:
1 decade ago
There is Easy way to understand that is 3000*10/100*2=600.
So there is no profit.
So there is no profit.
Pat* said:
1 decade ago
Am lost help me out. How do you come up with 0%. Use a simple elaboration please.
Angel16 said:
2 decades ago
Did not get why SP is calculatd by the given formula. Please elaborate.
Sangeetha said:
1 decade ago
Here it's not specified that the first man bought it for credit.
Naveen said:
1 decade ago
Can anyone please tell me what does 'Credit of 2 years' means?
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