Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 12)
12.
4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it?
35
40
45
50
Answer: Option
Explanation:

Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x and 1 woman's 1 day's work = y.

Then, 4x + 6y = 1 and 3x + 7y = 1 .
8 10

Solving the two equations, we get: x = 11 , y = 1
400 400

1 woman's 1 day's work = 1 .
400

10 women's 1 day's work = 1 x 10 = 1 .
400 40

Hence, 10 women will complete the work in 40 days.

Discussion:
106 comments Page 5 of 11.

Cln reddy said:   9 years ago
Please explain it in units method.

Wasif said:   9 years ago
Why we use days in fraction?

Mk sai gopala krishna said:   9 years ago
LCM METHOD:
LCM8, 10) = 40 units.

4M + 6W -> 8 days -> 5 units per day.
3M + 7W -> 10days -> 4 units per day.

3 * (4M + 6W) = 5 units per day -----> (1).
4 * (3M + 7W) = 4 units per day -----> (2).

Solving eq (1) and eq (2);

We get 10W =1 unit per day.

Therefore, 40 units/(1 unit per day) = 40 days.
(3)

Shyam said:   9 years ago
Hi, Here I'm solving the equation in detail.


4x + 6y = 1/8 --------> equation (1).
3x + 7y = 1/10 -------> equation (2).

Now we need to cancel one term. Choose either x or y. I chose x. So I'll multiply equation 1 with 3 and equation 2 with 4.

(4x + 6y = 1/8) *3
(3x + 7y = 1/10) *4

The new values will be:

12x + 18y= 3/8 ----------> (1)
12x + 28y= 4/10 --------> (2)

Now subtract 1 from 2.

12x - 12x will be 0.

18y - 28y = -10y.

3/8 - 4/10 = -1/40.
So, -10y = -1/40.

y = -1/40/-10

y =1/400

Now Put the value of y in equation 1 or 2. I choose 1.

So, 4x + 6*1/400 = 1/8.

= 4x + 6/400 = 1/8.

= 4x = 1/8 - 6/400.

= 4x = 11/100.

x = 11/100/4.

=11/400.

So x = 11/400 and y= 1/400.

Ashok said:   9 years ago
Please learn how solve this equations?

Rohit pal said:   10 years ago
Easiest way:

We want only 10 women value right so just take equation like:

4m + 6w = 1/8.....(1) *3.

3m + 7w = 1/10......(2) *4.

We get -10w = 3/8 - 2/5.

Solve w = 1/400.

So 10 women = (1/400*10) = 40.

Sekhar said:   10 years ago
4 men + 6 women = 8 days.
3 men + 7 women = 10 days.

10 women = ?

8(4 men + 6 women) = 10(3 men + 7 women).
32 men + 48 women = 30 men+70 women.

So 2 men = 22 women. Then 1 man = 11 women.

Now convert men into women. 4 men + 6 women = 8 days.

Now instead of 4 men write 44 women. So 44 women + 6 women = 8 days.

50 women ------- 8 days.
10 women -------- ?

m1 d1 = m2 d2.
50*8 = 10*?

So 10 women can do work in 40 days!

Gananathan said:   10 years ago
M = 11 W.

4m+6w = 8 -----> 4*11+6 = 50 (women) = 8 (days) /// assume work =1 /////.

10w = ?

Apply formula: Women 1*day 1/work 1 = Women 2*day 2/work 2.

50*8/1 = 10*d2/1.

50*8/10 = d2.

400/10 = d2.

40/1 = d2.

So women do work for 40 days.

Kavya said:   10 years ago
Given 4m 6w = 8 days.

3m+7w = 10 days.

Next step: (4m+6w) 8 days = 32m+48w.

(3m+7w) 10 days = 30m+70w.

Next step: 32m+48w = 30m+70w.

32m-30m = 70w-48w.

2m = 22w.

2(1m = 11w) therefore 1m = 11w.

Take any relation given in question 4m+6w = 8 days.

4(11)+6w = 44+6 = 50w.

Finally 50w-8 days.

So, 50w*8 days/10w = 40 days.

Bhupendra kumbhare said:   1 decade ago
Hello friends.

Can anyone explain if any other examples in which 3 persons like man, woman and boy replacing by other?


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