Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 12)
12.
4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x and 1 woman's 1 day's work = y.
| Then, 4x + 6y = | 1 | and 3x + 7y = | 1 | . |
| 8 | 10 |
| Solving the two equations, we get: x = | 11 | , y = | 1 |
| 400 | 400 |
 1 woman's 1 day's work = |
1 | . |
| 400 |
 10 women's 1 day's work = |
 |
1 | x 10 |  |
= | 1 | . |
| 400 | 40 |
Hence, 10 women will complete the work in 40 days.
Discussion:
106 comments Page 4 of 11.
Narasingarao said:
1 decade ago
men | women = days.
4 | 6 = 8.
3 | 7 = 10.
| 10 = ?
Solution- by cross multiplication and subtraction.
6*10 = 60 ; 4*7 = 28.
7*8 = 56 ; 3*6 = 18.
60-56 = 4 * 28-18 = 10 = 4*10 = 40 days.
4 | 6 = 8.
3 | 7 = 10.
| 10 = ?
Solution- by cross multiplication and subtraction.
6*10 = 60 ; 4*7 = 28.
7*8 = 56 ; 3*6 = 18.
60-56 = 4 * 28-18 = 10 = 4*10 = 40 days.
Arun said:
7 years ago
@All.
(4M+6W)8 = (3M+7W)10
32M+48W = 30M=70M
32M-30M + 48W-70W=0
2M-22W = 0
M = 11W.
Here one Man is equal to 11 Women.
Take 4m+6w to take 8 days equation.
4m=11 * 4w.
4M=44W==> 44W+6W =50.
50 women take 8 days.
10 Women's takes 8 * 5 = 40 days.
(4M+6W)8 = (3M+7W)10
32M+48W = 30M=70M
32M-30M + 48W-70W=0
2M-22W = 0
M = 11W.
Here one Man is equal to 11 Women.
Take 4m+6w to take 8 days equation.
4m=11 * 4w.
4M=44W==> 44W+6W =50.
50 women take 8 days.
10 Women's takes 8 * 5 = 40 days.
(2)
Gananathan said:
10 years ago
M = 11 W.
4m+6w = 8 -----> 4*11+6 = 50 (women) = 8 (days) /// assume work =1 /////.
10w = ?
Apply formula: Women 1*day 1/work 1 = Women 2*day 2/work 2.
50*8/1 = 10*d2/1.
50*8/10 = d2.
400/10 = d2.
40/1 = d2.
So women do work for 40 days.
4m+6w = 8 -----> 4*11+6 = 50 (women) = 8 (days) /// assume work =1 /////.
10w = ?
Apply formula: Women 1*day 1/work 1 = Women 2*day 2/work 2.
50*8/1 = 10*d2/1.
50*8/10 = d2.
400/10 = d2.
40/1 = d2.
So women do work for 40 days.
Jak said:
1 decade ago
Hi I can't understand this problem.
Can we solve like this way.
4 man and 6 women = 8 days.
3 man and 7 women = 10 days.
So,
2 man and 8 women = 12 days.
1 man and 9 women = 14 days.
0 man and 10 women = 16 days.
Is it right way.
Can we solve like this way.
4 man and 6 women = 8 days.
3 man and 7 women = 10 days.
So,
2 man and 8 women = 12 days.
1 man and 9 women = 14 days.
0 man and 10 women = 16 days.
Is it right way.
Sandhya said:
7 years ago
4x+6y=1/8 ---> (1)
3x+7y=1/10 ---> (2).
Multiply EQ(1)with 3,and EQ(2)with4, then,
12x+18y = 3/8.
12x+28y = 4/10.
Now, x terms get cancelled and then we have,
-10y = 3/8 - 4/10 from this step we got 10y = 40.
3x+7y=1/10 ---> (2).
Multiply EQ(1)with 3,and EQ(2)with4, then,
12x+18y = 3/8.
12x+28y = 4/10.
Now, x terms get cancelled and then we have,
-10y = 3/8 - 4/10 from this step we got 10y = 40.
Vijaya said:
1 decade ago
Ok I can understand this problem but I want any shortcut method for doing the problem so fast. Because time is precious in competative exams. Dng all these caluclation is waste of time so I sortcut to this one so plzz any one help me.
Vijay said:
1 year ago
4m + 6w = 1/8 -------------------(1)
3m + 7w = 1/10 ------------------(2)
Then (1) *3 & (2)*4.
12m + 18w = 3/8 -------->(3)
12m + 28w = 4/10 ------> (4)
(4)-(3).
You will get 10w=1/40
Therefore, 40 days is the answer.
3m + 7w = 1/10 ------------------(2)
Then (1) *3 & (2)*4.
12m + 18w = 3/8 -------->(3)
12m + 28w = 4/10 ------> (4)
(4)-(3).
You will get 10w=1/40
Therefore, 40 days is the answer.
(57)
Katam brahmareddy said:
1 decade ago
4x + 6y =1/8*3 and 3x + 7y =1/10*4
12x+18y=3/8 and 12x+28y=2/5
subtract them
12x+18y-3/8-12x-28y+2/5=0
ofter
-10y=-3/8+2/5
=-15+16/40
=1/40 (it is work done for day with ten womens)
-10y=1/40*10
=1/40
answer is 40 days..
12x+18y=3/8 and 12x+28y=2/5
subtract them
12x+18y-3/8-12x-28y+2/5=0
ofter
-10y=-3/8+2/5
=-15+16/40
=1/40 (it is work done for day with ten womens)
-10y=1/40*10
=1/40
answer is 40 days..
Eno said:
6 years ago
Please, we have been using 1/n for 1 day's work. How come we are now saying that let 1 man's day be x and 4 days be 4x?
Or are we trying to say we have to cram how each examples are used and not to go by the 1/n always?
Or are we trying to say we have to cram how each examples are used and not to go by the 1/n always?
Ashish said:
1 decade ago
Hi all,
(4m+6w)8 = (3m+7w)10...........eq.(1)
2m = 22w
M = 11W
NOW, we put the value of M in eq. 1
(44+6)8= 10X
X = 400/10
X = 40 Ans.
(4m+6w)8 = (3m+7w)10...........eq.(1)
2m = 22w
M = 11W
NOW, we put the value of M in eq. 1
(44+6)8= 10X
X = 400/10
X = 40 Ans.
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