Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

8*(4M+6W) = 10*(3M+7).
32M + 48W = 30M + 70W,
32M - 30M = 70W - 48 W,
2M = 22W,
M = 22/2 W,
M= 11W,
IT MEANS 1 man = 11 women.

So, 4 Man = 4*11 = 44 Women,
Now, 44 + 6 = 50 Women.

Then 50 Women work done in 8 days...so those work 10 women compleat in how many days ?
So, 50*8/10 = 40 days.

(4m + 6w)x8 = (3m +7w)x 10.
2m =22w,
1m= 11w,
M/w = 11/1,

Put value
(3m + 7w) x 10.
(3x11 + 7x1) x10.
(33+7)x10.
400.
(10wx1)xd = 400.
D = 400/10.

40days.

Thanks @Chan and @Ashish.

Can anyone solve the equation clearly?

4x+6y=1/8 ---> (1)
3x+7y=1/10 ---> (2).

Multiply EQ(1)with 3,and EQ(2)with4, then,
12x+18y = 3/8.
12x+28y = 4/10.

Now, x terms get cancelled and then we have,
-10y = 3/8 - 4/10 from this step we got 10y = 40.

1/8 * 3 = 3/8 not 1/24.

4x +6y= 1/8 ---> eq. (1) --> * 3
3x +7y= 1/10 ---> eq. (2) --> * 4

Then We will get;
10y (women) = 1/40.
Ans. 40days.

Let,

1 man's 1 day's work = x.
so, 4 men's 1 day's work = 4x.

Let,
1 woman's 1 day's work = y.
so, 6 woman's 1 day's work = 6y.

Then
4 men's 6 woman's 1 day's work = 4x + 6y --------> (1)

Given,
4 men's 6 woman's 8 day's work = 1
So, 4 men's 6 women 1 day's work = 1/8 -----------> (2).

From 1 and 2,
4x + 6y = 1/8 ----------------------> (3)
According to (3)
3x + 7y = 1/10 ---------------------> (4)

Solving 3 and 4 we get,
10y = 1/40.
=> y = 1/400.
So, 1 woman's 1 day's work = 1/400.

Now,
1 woman's 1/400 work = 1 day,
1 woman's 1 work = 400 day,
10 woman's 1 work = 400/10 days,
= 40 days.
Ans : 40 days

How to get 1 woman's day work = 1/400.

Can you please explain it clearly? Can't understand about it.

4M+6W=8.
3M+7W=10.
10W=?.

1day work of 4M+6W=1/8,
3M+7W=1/10.

8(4M+6W) = 1.
10(3M+7W) = 1.

Now equate both equations:

32M + 48W = 30M + 70W.
32M - 30M = 70W - 48W.
2M = 22W.
1M = 11W--->3.

Substitute equation 3 in 1.

4 * 11W + 6W = 1/8.
44W + 6W = 1/8,
50W = 1/8; 10W=?
10 * 1/8 * 50 = 1/40.

Therefore 10 women can complete the work in 40days.