Aptitude - Simple Interest - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Simple Interest - General Questions (Q.No. 14)
14.
A person takes a loan of Rs. 200 at 5% simple interest. He returns Rs. 100 at the end of 1 year. In order to clear his dues at the end of 2 years, he would pay:
Rs. 105
Rs. 110
Rs. 115
Rs. 115.50
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Amount to be paid
= Rs. 100 + 200 x 5 x 1 + 100 x 5 x 1
100 100
= Rs. 115.
Discussion:
83 comments Page 4 of 9.

Nishant said:   9 years ago
You are absolutely correct @Addan Kayani.

Manisha said:   9 years ago
The answer should be 115.50 because at the end of one year he pays back 100, so the principle for the 2nd year becomes 110, interest at the end of the 2nd year is 5.5 so the amount to be paid will be 115.50.

Padal said:   9 years ago
Yes, the answer is 115.50.

Santosh K said:   9 years ago
The correct answer is 115.50.

UDIT NARAYAN(MSRIT) said:   9 years ago
IT IS SIMPLE SI = PTR/100.

200 * 1 * 5/100 = 10.
TOT PAID = 210.
210 - 100 = 110.
110 * 5 * 1/100 = 5.5.
TOT AMT = 110 + 5.5 = 115.5.

Seraj khan said:   9 years ago
The right answer is;

Principal = 200.
For first year
Now Rs 100 take out from the bank then principal = 100.
For 2nd year,
Because question mention is simple interest (always kept in mind do no consider interest rate).

Hari said:   9 years ago
As per my calculation, the answer is 115.5rs.

Kishore said:   9 years ago
The si on 200 is 10, he paid 100 so amount principal in 2 and would be 100 not 110 because if we have taken 110 it would be ci.

Krishu said:   9 years ago
IN SI, the principal is always same, but in CI principal get vary ie, (p+ci) this is the concept.

You can take an example for it and find CI and SI for single case. you will see SI is always found in original principal, whether it is for 1st, 2nd yr and so on.

But for CI, interest always find on (p+interest), every year principal gets changed which will be( p+interest).

So the ans is correct ie 115.

Emailpurnendu@gmail.com said:   8 years ago
It is S.I.

For 1st yr he has to pay (200 x 1 x 5/100) = 10 (interest only),
Now he cleared Rs. 100. So remaining principle is (200-100) = rs. 100.
Hence, he has to pay (100 x 1 x 5/100) = 5 (interest only).
So, In total he has to pay [10(prv int.) + 5 (nxt int) + 100 (remaining principle)] = rs. 115.

Is it clear?


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