Aptitude - Simple Interest - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Simple Interest - General Questions (Q.No. 14)
14.
A person takes a loan of Rs. 200 at 5% simple interest. He returns Rs. 100 at the end of 1 year. In order to clear his dues at the end of 2 years, he would pay:
Rs. 105
Rs. 110
Rs. 115
Rs. 115.50
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Amount to be paid
= Rs. 100 + 200 x 5 x 1 + 100 x 5 x 1
100 100
= Rs. 115.
Discussion:
83 comments Page 4 of 9.

Santhosh yada said:   1 decade ago
115 is correct

JoJo Negi said:   1 decade ago
115 is correct answer bcoz he had taken 200 for 2 years at 5%

S.I for which become 10 rupees

Total =210 at the end of 1st year
so 210-100=10 rupees

Now P become 100 for next year(S.I) coz he had return 100 rupees already

S.I for 100 in one year at 5% is 5

So TOTAL momey to be paid by him would be

210+105=315 out of which he had return 100

So it becomes 215 , means which contains 100 rupees for sum and 115 rupees are to be paid.

Bhashkar Tiwary said:   1 decade ago
The answer should be 115.50.

It's very simple:
after one year- net amount will be= principal + interest
=200+(200*5*1)/100=210.

The person paid 100.
So new p is 110, so interest comes out to be=( 110*5*1)/100
=5.5

So total amt to be paid after 1 year gaain is = Rs. 115.50.

Path_breaker said:   1 decade ago
The answer is 115.50, correct it NOW

Rufus Alex said:   1 decade ago
115 is correct

because logically thinking the power of simple interest is one must not calculate interest for the previous interest money and so no one will return the interest before returning the complete principle so 115 is correct

Bindu said:   1 decade ago
Ans is 115 when it is SI and 115.5 when it is CI

p=200 initially

r=5%

So si for first year =200*1*5/100=10 rs

He returns rs 100 ie 200-100=100

So for the first year after paying 100 rs balance will be 100 rs principle and 10 rs interest .as it is si next year interest will be calculated for rs 100 which is
The balance in his loan
2nd year si=100*1*5/100=5 rs

So at the end of 2nd year to close the loan he has to pay rs 100(principle balance) +rs 10(interest 1st yr) +rs 5(interest 2nd year)=115 rs

If it was CI answer will be 115.5 as 2nd years p will be 100+10
hope the confusion is over now :)

Sumit said:   1 decade ago
For 1 year...

si=200*5*1/100=10 rs

Now lets say simple interest will be paid after 2nd yr...

So after he paid 100 rs ..

For next yr si will be calculated on (200-100)=100

si=100*5*1/100=5

So total amount should be paid after 2nd yr=100+5+10=115

Bharghav said:   1 decade ago
I agree with bindu explanation.

Vikas said:   1 decade ago
Statement is wrong. It should be stated that the Rs. 100 is paid back from the pricipal.

Then answer is 115. Otherwise ans is 115. 50.

Deepesh said:   1 decade ago
The given answer is correct , coz he left with 100/- plus the interest plus the interest of that 100/- which is due..
100+10+(100*5*1/100) = 115


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