Aptitude - Simple Interest - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Simple Interest - General Questions (Q.No. 14)
14.
A person takes a loan of Rs. 200 at 5% simple interest. He returns Rs. 100 at the end of 1 year. In order to clear his dues at the end of 2 years, he would pay:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| Amount to be paid |
|
|||||||||
| = Rs. 115. |
Discussion:
83 comments Page 2 of 9.
Baba said:
1 decade ago
The ans is correct as it is based on simple interest, according to SI interest must be calculated only to initial sum borrowed...
Prateek said:
1 decade ago
The given answer is correct. The value 10 is the interest not money for Simple Interest. So interest should be calculated on 100 instead of 110.
Sundari said:
1 decade ago
Tha answer is correct. Because calculating the interest for 1st year which Rs 10 is the interest. He paid 100 at the end of first year so calculate interest for amt 100 ie for Rs 5. So total interest he has to pay is Rs.15+Plus borrowed amount is 200(215).
But he paid 100 in the previous year.
So finally 215-100 = 115. So the answer is correct from my point of view.
But he paid 100 in the previous year.
So finally 215-100 = 115. So the answer is correct from my point of view.
Viay narayan singh said:
1 decade ago
The answer is right. Because first year he only pay principal amount and not interest. So he has to pay Rs 10 as a interest for first year and Rs 5 for 2 nd year so total amount paid to clear his debt is 100+10+5= 115.
Tripti said:
1 decade ago
The answer is absolutely correct. Sundari has given the exact explanation. It is the actual concept.
Harsha R said:
1 decade ago
The SI for 200 at the end of 1st year=(200*1*5)/100=10.
Hence total amount at the end of 1st year=200+10=210.
But he returns back RS 100 at the end of 1st year.
Hence principl amount for 2nd year=(210-100)=110.
Then SI at the end of 2nd year=(110*1*5)/100=5.5.
Hence total amount he needs to return at the end of 2nd year
= 110+5.5 = Rs 115.5.
Hence total amount at the end of 1st year=200+10=210.
But he returns back RS 100 at the end of 1st year.
Hence principl amount for 2nd year=(210-100)=110.
Then SI at the end of 2nd year=(110*1*5)/100=5.5.
Hence total amount he needs to return at the end of 2nd year
= 110+5.5 = Rs 115.5.
Shivakarthik said:
1 decade ago
In general 5% interest of 200rs is 10rs .He return rs 100 at the end of 1 year (here the interest is 10 rs). so he want to give the another 100 rs in 1 year the interest for that amt is 5 rs so (10+5=15)
100+15=115 answer s correct ...
hope u understand....
100+15=115 answer s correct ...
hope u understand....
Agarwal said:
1 decade ago
1st year (200*5*1/100)+200=210.rs100 refund,so 210-100=110
2nd year (110*5*1/100)+110=115.5
If any doubt arise in any other question also post here..
2nd year (110*5*1/100)+110=115.5
If any doubt arise in any other question also post here..
Krishna said:
1 decade ago
I agree with harsha, its the exact explanation according to me.
Wow harsha.
Wow harsha.
Shilpa said:
1 decade ago
Tel me the exact ans with denomination like p=? t=? r=?
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