Aptitude - Numbers - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Numbers - General Questions (Q.No. 3)
3.
It is being given that (232 + 1) is completely divisible by a whole number. Which of the following numbers is completely divisible by this number?
(216 + 1)
(216 - 1)
(7 x 223)
(296 + 1)
Answer: Option
Explanation:

Let 232 = x. Then, (232 + 1) = (x + 1).

Let (x + 1) be completely divisible by the natural number N. Then,

(296 + 1) = [(232)3 + 1] = (x3 + 1) = (x + 1)(x2 - x + 1), which is completely divisible by N, since (x + 1) is divisible by N.

Discussion:
137 comments Page 2 of 14.

Ronny said:   3 years ago
@Tanvi.

Here (a^3+b^3)identity is used. Please check it.
(7)

Aviii said:   11 months ago
Let, (2^32) = (2^n)

If ( 2^n + 1 ) is divisible by a whole number, then higher powers of that same base will also be divisible by that same number.
(2^nm + 1 ) will also be divisible by the same number, where "m" is an integer.

Since, (2^96 + 1 ) = ( 2^32*3 + 1)
Therefore, (2^96 + 1) is divisible by the same number.
"Option D " is correct!
(6)

Selvakumar O S said:   1 year ago
I used the logic by considering 32 as 2 and it's 3 times Multiple 96 as 6.

So, I used this value in this equation.

2^6+1/2^2+1.
=> 65/5 = 13.
(5)

Vilaz said:   5 years ago
Let 2^32 = x.

Lets take,
(2^96 + 1)
= [(2^32)3 + 1]
= (x^3 + 1) { we took 2^32=x}
=(x^3 + 1) { In the form of [a^3+b^3 ]=[a^2- ab+b^2 ]
= (x + 1)(x2 - x + 1).

Which is completely divisible by N, since (x + 1) is divisible by N.
(4)

Tanvi said:   4 years ago
Can anyone help me. What identity is used to determine whether a number is divisible or not completely?
(4)

Aviii said:   11 months ago
Given: (2^32 + 1) is completely divisible by a whole number.
Let ( 2^32 + 1 ) = (2^n + 1 ), and since ( 2^n + 1 ) is divisible by a whole number,
we can use the exponentiation rule:

Formula:
( a^m )^n = a^(m * n).

Similarly,
(( 2^n )^ m + 1) is also divisible by the same whole number.
2^96 = ( ( 2^32)^3)+1.

Therefore, Option D: (2^96 + 1) is correct!
(4)

Anomie said:   2 months ago
Thanks for the explanation.
(2)

Bryan said:   10 years ago
Above mentioned are totally absurd. Few of them having tried good but not upto the mark.

Now see this carefully.

We are trying to get our given no. 2^32+1 from the choices given and I tried all d choices. And atlast 2^96+1 is easily broken to get 2^32+1.

Now I take an example to explain it in detail. Since 2^32+1 is completely div by N therefore N<=2^32+1 (less than equal to).

Ex: If 4 is completely div by x then x is always less than or equal to 4.

Now take first option 2^16+1 here it will be completely div N when N<=2^16+1 but wt if N>2^16+1 since value of N is ranging from 0 to 2^32+1 so wt if N>2^16+1 then 2^16+1 is not completely div.

Since we exactly don't know value of N we are checking its range to determine.

Therefore option A is not answer. Now similarly B is not answer not.

Option D is answer because all the range of N completely divides it which is explained how by indiabix.

If you don't understand this answer just try to focus on range of N. And again see my example of 4 completely divided.
(1)

Arjhun said:   7 years ago
@All. Please refer the following.

Formula : (a^3+b^3)=(a+b)(a^2-ab+b^2).
Substitute : (x^3+1^3)=(x+1)(x^2-x*(1)+1^2).
(1)

Dilip said:   5 years ago
I'm not understanding this problem.
(1)


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