Aptitude - Banker's Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Banker's Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 2)
2.
The banker's discount on Rs. 1600 at 15% per annum is the same as true discount on Rs. 1680 for the same time and at the same rate. The time is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
S.I. on Rs. 1600 = T.D. on Rs. 1680.
Rs. 1600 is the P.W. of Rs. 1680, i.e., Rs. 80 is on Rs. 1600 at 15%.
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100 x 80 | ![]() |
= | 1 | year = 4 months. |
1600 x 15 | 3 |
Discussion:
33 comments Page 2 of 4.
Ashish Garg said:
1 decade ago
B.D= 1600*15*T/100=240T
T.D=1680*15*T/100+15T
NOW,B.D=T.D
THUS T=1/3*12=4 MONTHS
T.D=1680*15*T/100+15T
NOW,B.D=T.D
THUS T=1/3*12=4 MONTHS
Prena said:
1 decade ago
Is there any other alternative or shortcut way to solve this question?
Sravanthi said:
1 decade ago
Can any one explain me how the formulas of B.D and T.D are derived?
Krishna said:
1 decade ago
Please explain clearly.
What is S.I, P.W?
And the formulas.
What is S.I, P.W?
And the formulas.
Shanthi said:
8 years ago
I'm not getting the answer. Can anyone explain me clearly?
Jasmine said:
5 years ago
What is the formula for time? Please, anyone, tell me.
(2)
Navaraj said:
7 years ago
Why 1600 is taken in time calculation?
If Td is 1680.
If Td is 1680.
S. Jamesanderson said:
7 years ago
Please explain the solution with the shortcut method.
Naaz said:
9 years ago
Can anyone explain me clearly, how did that 80 came?
Isha said:
1 decade ago
B.D = bank discount and t.d = true discount.
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