Aptitude - Banker's Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Banker's Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 2)
2.
The banker's discount on Rs. 1600 at 15% per annum is the same as true discount on Rs. 1680 for the same time and at the same rate. The time is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
S.I. on Rs. 1600 = T.D. on Rs. 1680.
Rs. 1600 is the P.W. of Rs. 1680, i.e., Rs. 80 is on Rs. 1600 at 15%.
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100 x 80 | ![]() |
= | 1 | year = 4 months. |
1600 x 15 | 3 |
Discussion:
33 comments Page 2 of 4.
Mithun pk said:
7 years ago
I think T.D is 1600 and B.D is 1680.
Then based on T.D formula this can be solved.
Then based on T.D formula this can be solved.
Navaraj said:
7 years ago
Why 1600 is taken in time calculation?
If Td is 1680.
If Td is 1680.
Anisha said:
1 decade ago
What is S.I.? And what is time's formula?
ABCD said:
8 years ago
@Jiten.
S.I is Simple Interest.
S.I is Simple Interest.
Shanthi said:
8 years ago
I'm not getting the answer. Can anyone explain me clearly?
Jiten said:
9 years ago
What is S.I?
Hari prasad said:
9 years ago
1600 in 15% = 240.
1680 - 1600 = 80,
80/240 = 1/3.
So, the answer is 12 months * 1/3 = 4months.
1680 - 1600 = 80,
80/240 = 1/3.
So, the answer is 12 months * 1/3 = 4months.
Anna said:
9 years ago
From, where the value of 100 comes?
Naaz said:
9 years ago
Can anyone explain me clearly, how did that 80 came?
Prateek said:
1 decade ago
P.W. stands for?
What is True Discount?
What is True Discount?
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