Aptitude - Banker's Discount - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Banker's Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 3)
3.
The banker's gain of a certain sum due 2 years hence at 10% per annum is Rs. 24. The present worth is:
Rs. 480
Rs. 520
Rs. 600
Rs. 960
Answer: Option
Explanation:

T.D. = B.G. x 100 = Rs. 24 x 100 = Rs. 120.
Rate x Time 10 x 2

P.W. = 100 x T.D. = Rs. 100 x 120 = Rs. 600.
Rate x Time 10 x 2

Discussion:
27 comments Page 2 of 3.

Sukhsand Singh said:   10 years ago
Is the answer correct?

I mean B.G = B.D - T.D.

Now, B.D = (PxRxT)/100.

T.D = (PxRxT)/(100+ RxT).

Now, R=10; T=2; B.G = 24.

Solving this we get P = 720.

Am I doing anything wrong? Appreciate the help.

Dhruv said:   10 years ago
Can it be done through compound interest?

Raushan.anshu@gmail.com said:   1 decade ago
How T.D. = B.G.*100/(Rate*Time)?

Swapan said:   1 decade ago
What is present worth?

Ashish said:   1 decade ago
What is banker's gain?

Vincent said:   1 decade ago
Hi, @Parkavi.

PW Means Present Worth.

Parkavi said:   1 decade ago
What is meant by PW?

Imzzys said:   1 decade ago
Someone please show the derivation.

B.G. = (T.D.)*(T.D.)/P.W. or

T.D. = B.G.*100 /(Rate*Time).

Jai prakash said:   1 decade ago
Simple method as for I know.

T.D. =(B.G. x 100)/(R/T)= (24*100)/(10*2)=Rs.120.

B.G=(T.D)^2/P.W => P.W= (T.D)^2/B.G.

P.W= (120)^2/ 24 = 14400/24=600.

If anyone knows better explanation?

Vishal nigade said:   1 decade ago
100 is there because rate is specified as a percentage. Just cross multiply the equation P=[(S.I) *100/ (R. T) ]


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