Aptitude - Alligation or Mixture - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Alligation or Mixture - General Questions (Q.No. 15)
15.
A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
By the rule of alligation, we have:
Profit on 1st part Profit on 2nd part | ||
8% | Mean Profit 14% | 18% |
4 | 6 |
Ration of 1st and 2nd parts = 4 : 6 = 2 : 3
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3 | x 1000 | ![]() |
= 600 kg. |
5 |
Discussion:
44 comments Page 3 of 5.
Marvi said:
7 years ago
How to calculate 1st nd 2nd ratio?
Nafiul said:
6 years ago
Ql=Quality of Lower.
Qh=Quality of Higher(Let x).
Pl=Profit of Lower.
Ph=Profit of Higher.
Ql/Qh=(Ph - M)/(M - Pl).
(1000-x)/x=(18-14)/(14-8).
(1000-x)/x=4/6.
(1000-x)/x=2/3.
2x=3000-3x.
5x=3000.
x=600.
Qh=Quality of Higher(Let x).
Pl=Profit of Lower.
Ph=Profit of Higher.
Ql/Qh=(Ph - M)/(M - Pl).
(1000-x)/x=(18-14)/(14-8).
(1000-x)/x=4/6.
(1000-x)/x=2/3.
2x=3000-3x.
5x=3000.
x=600.
Ajith kumar said:
1 decade ago
Thank you, I was also suffering with same doubt. It helped me a lot.
Gokul Ramakrishnan said:
4 years ago
Thank you it helped me a lot.
Priya said:
1 decade ago
@target
18-14=4
and
8-14=6
hope it helps u..
18-14=4
and
8-14=6
hope it helps u..
Gokul said:
1 decade ago
If 18-14 = 4 and 14-8 = 6.
Then the ratio must be 3:2 for a:b how come it is 2:3?
Then the ratio must be 3:2 for a:b how come it is 2:3?
Vasumaila said:
1 decade ago
The ratio of 1st & 2nd = 4:6=2:3
so its become 2+3=5
so we calculate 3/5*1000=600
I hope U understand
so its become 2+3=5
so we calculate 3/5*1000=600
I hope U understand
Simit said:
1 decade ago
Let us consider 2 part X(18%)&Y(8%).
Now 1000-x = y.
1000*1.14 = x*1.18+y*1.08.
1000*1.14 = x*1.18+(1000-x)1.08.
1000*0.06 = x*0.1.
x = 600.
Now 1000-x = y.
1000*1.14 = x*1.18+y*1.08.
1000*1.14 = x*1.18+(1000-x)1.08.
1000*0.06 = x*0.1.
x = 600.
Kanna said:
1 decade ago
How 3/5 is coming ?
Rajesh said:
1 decade ago
Yes its suggest how you found 3/5?
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