"The secret to creativity is knowing how to hide your sources."
- Albert Einstein
25.
Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the same work in fifteen days. What is the ratio between the capacity of a man and a woman?
As per the explation above, we can do the same thing by differnt manner.
It is confirmed from the question that work doen by women & men is same.
So we can write it in this way:
WORK OF WOMEN = WORK OF MEN
SO 20 WOMEN * 16 DAY = 16 MEN * 15 DAYS
SO 20*16/16*15 = MEN/WOMEN
SO RATIO IS 4:3.
Sheeta said:
(Fri, Aug 13, 2010 01:01:29 AM)
Thank you Sheetal!
Sanjeetha said:
(Wed, Aug 25, 2010 02:36:09 AM)
Thank you.
Srinivasareddy said:
(Tue, Aug 31, 2010 09:56:29 AM)
Sheetal your explanation is too good.
Vikas said:
(Fri, Sep 24, 2010 07:42:29 AM)
Thanks Sheetal, it is very understandable solution.
Sagarika said:
(Sun, Oct 3, 2010 07:40:00 AM)
Though here there is no error but there is a shortcut:
The method is as follows
20w -> 16d
16m -> 15d
w:m=20:16=4:5 i.e., according to number of w and m
w:m=16:15 i.e., according to num of days they take
Then the ratio between m amd w according to their capacity will be
= (16:15 :: 4:5)
= 16/4 : 15/3
= 4:3
This could be done because the ratio of capacity is always reverse of number of days taken.
Pavan said:
(Sun, Oct 10, 2010 08:15:40 AM)
Why we take 1/240:1/320?
Why not 1/320:1/240?
It will give us reverse answer as 3:4 which is the 1st option.
Jananipriya.P. said:
(Sun, Oct 10, 2010 03:19:07 PM)
Since the ratio has been asked between man and woman which is 1/240, 1/320 per day respectively. That is it Pavan.
M.Dineshkumar said:
(Sat, Oct 16, 2010 09:45:33 AM)
Ok what you saying is 100% right Jananipriya. Then why we have to do cross multiple work as they given in last step.
Vandna said:
(Wed, Oct 20, 2010 05:50:25 AM)
Why we multiply 20*16 and 16*15. Means what is the logic behind it?
Newbie said:
(Tue, Nov 9, 2010 05:45:16 AM)
^^ We do 20*16 & 16*15 because of the below logic:
It's given that 20W can do the work in 16 days. Going by this, 1W would be able to do the work in 16*20 days. Similarly, for one man, the work can be completed in 15*16 days. But then to find the capacity, you have to take the inverse, it's just like speed & time relation (the ratio of speed & time are reverse).
Hence, we write it as,
M:W = 1/240 : 1/320 = 1/3:1/4 = 4:3
@Dinesh: I feel if the fraction form is given a one of the answers then even that can be marked as the correct answer. But it's common practice to convert any answer into the simplest form & a fraction's not that.
Ramesh said:
(Tue, Nov 16, 2010 11:43:49 PM)
the last step of the sheetal explanation seems wrong
Sekar said:
(Sat, Nov 20, 2010 11:54:57 AM)
i doesnt know how uconvert theratio 1/240:1/320 to 4:3 pls tell how to convert
Shweta Swarup said:
(Wed, Nov 24, 2010 01:18:41 AM)
sheetal ur explanation is very very good, i really liked it.
thank u so much, u helped me a lot.
Shweta Swarup said:
(Wed, Nov 24, 2010 01:18:41 AM)
sheetal ur explanation is very very good, i really liked it.
thank u so much, u helped me a lot.
Vijaya said:
(Mon, Nov 29, 2010 12:23:07 AM)
20*16 : 16*15
cancel 16 on both sides then
20 : 15
cancel with 5
then ans is 4:3
Vishnu said:
(Fri, Dec 24, 2010 09:00:06 PM)
i cant understand that how tis ratio comes and inverse of men and women
Zeeshan said:
(Sun, Dec 26, 2010 09:30:20 AM)
thank you sheetal !!!
Shabana said:
(Sun, Dec 26, 2010 11:45:46 AM)
i hav an other way as
20 women take 16days
so, 1 women take 16/20 = 4/5 days
similarly ,16 men take 15 days
so , 1 man take 15/16 days
therefore 4/5 * 15/16 = 3/4 = 4:3
1 woman's 1 day's work =