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Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

@ : Home > Aptitude > Time and Work > General Questions - Discussion

30. 

A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days. A having worked for 16 days, B finishes the remaining work alone in 44 days. In how many days shall B finish the whole work alone?

[A]. 30 days[B]. 40 days
[C]. 60 days[D]. 70 days

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

Let A's 1 day's work = x and B's 1 day's work = y.

Then, x + y = 1 and 16x + 44y = 1.
30

Solving these two equations, we get: x = 1 and y = 1
60 60

B's 1 day's work = 1 .
60

Hence, B alone shall finish the whole work in 60 days.


Selvi said: (Fri, Aug 13, 2010 01:30:36 AM)    
 
A having worked for 16 days
B finishes the remaining work alone in 44 days
so,
B finish the whole work alone is = A having worked+B finishes the remaining work alone
B alone = 16 days + 44 days
= 60 days

Guest said: (Fri, Aug 13, 2010 09:37:20 AM)    
 
Selvi: its wrong... because, we dont know a & b's one day work.

Vishal said: (Sun, Aug 29, 2010 01:49:01 PM)    
 
Above solution is not properly explained.

Let me try to make it more clear (mathematically or logically).

1 day = 24 Hours.
A worked x hours in 1 day (24 hours).
B worked y hours in 1 day (24 hours).

So, x + y = 24 hours ----- Eq 1.

Now A's 16 days' work in hours = 16 * x = 16x.

And B's 44 days' work in hours = 44 * y = 44y.

16x + 44y = 30 days together worked of A + B in hours = 30 * 24 = 720 hours.

So 16x + 44y = 720 ----- Eq 2.

Now Eq 2 - 16 * Eq 1.

16x + 44y = 720.
16x + 16y = 384.
0 + 28y = 336.

Y = 336 / 28 = 12 hours in 1 day.

So x = 12 hours in 1 day.

If A doesn't work then to B has to work 24 hours in order to finish 1 day work which is equal to 2 days for B.

So for 30 days work, B has to work 60 days (answer = 60 days).

Ranjit said: (Sun, Nov 14, 2010 11:12:48 PM)    
 
How you got 16x + 44y = 1, thy said 16 days alone a worked remainig work finished by b is 44 days then how can you frame the equation from this given data, I cant get please make me to understand.

Student said: (Thu, Dec 23, 2010 08:25:30 AM)    
 
How can we write 16x+44y=1. I cant understand.

Santh said: (Mon, Dec 27, 2010 01:26:01 PM)    
 
Selvi. You are wrong absolutely.

Kanna said: (Mon, Jan 10, 2011 06:00:47 AM)    
 
Let A's 1 day's work = x and B's 1 day's work = y.
Both A's and B's 1 day work=1/30
i.e (A's 1 day + B's 1 day)=1/30
i.e x + y = 1/30........eq1
now,
A having worked for 16 days, B finishes the remaining work alone in 44 days
i.e work done by A in 16 days = 16x
Remaining work done B= 1 - 16x
but Remaining work is done by B in 44days i.e 44y
i.e. 44y=1-16x
i.e 16x+44y=1........eq2
solving eq1 & eq2,
we get,x = 1/60 and y = 1/60
B's 1 day's work = 1/60.
Hence, B alone shall finish the whole work in 60 days.

Akiii said: (Sun, Mar 27, 2011 12:33:33 PM)    
 
Kanna you are right.

Bangaram said: (Sun, Jun 5, 2011 03:52:20 AM)    
 
Kanna your explaination was good.

Manasa said: (Sat, Jun 11, 2011 12:49:42 AM)    
 
A's 1 day work ,consider X
B's 1 day work ,consider Y
(A+B) 1 day work=(X+Y)=1/30
next condition:
A works for 16 days=16*X
B works for 44 days for remaining work to complete=44*Y
to complete whole work;16X+44Y=1
by solving both equations ,we get
X=1/60,Y=1/60
B can complete work in 60 days.

Vidhya said: (Mon, Jul 4, 2011 09:25:49 AM)    
 
What is the need to write number of days as a ratio?

Why cant we take it as x+y=30 ?

Yogi said: (Wed, Jul 27, 2011 05:29:18 PM)    
 
@Manasa

Yes you are corrrect.

Sheik said: (Thu, Jul 28, 2011 10:42:09 PM)    
 
@Kanna

Your explanation is good and easily understandable.

Soniya said: (Tue, Aug 9, 2011 01:56:06 PM)    
 
@kanna.

You are right. Thanks.

Thangeswari said: (Sat, Sep 10, 2011 08:35:14 AM)    
 
Kanna.

Thanks a lot. Your explanation was excellent.

Pandit said: (Thu, Sep 15, 2011 12:12:52 AM)    
 
@Kanna.

You explain very easly. Thanks a lot.

Priyanka said: (Thu, Nov 3, 2011 02:04:23 PM)    
 
@vidya :- we are taking 1/30 , becoz we are talking about work completed by x and y in one day .

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