I AM UNABLE TO GET THE SOLUTION OF THIS TYPE OF QUESTION. PLEASE HELP ME..
AND what do they mean by odd days.
please explain in a more better way if you can.
Thahseen said:
(Sat, Jul 10, 2010 06:03:29 AM)
What is meant by odd days?
Ram said:
(Fri, Jul 16, 2010 09:52:07 AM)
How can I calculate that 5 yrs/ then whats meaning of odd days?
Manohar said:
(Tue, Jul 27, 2010 09:04:04 PM)
In i year how many weeks are there.
How is this odd day comes?
Sindhu said:
(Mon, Aug 2, 2010 12:50:29 AM)
What are these odd days. I am unable to understand this problems? so if possible could you explain in a simple way.
Bhaskar said:
(Fri, Aug 27, 2010 10:15:53 AM)
How can u say 1600 years as 0 odd days?
Priya said:
(Thu, Sep 9, 2010 03:08:12 PM)
What does odd days mean?
Anilkumar said:
(Sun, Sep 19, 2010 02:44:02 AM)
@Priya suppose take the month of January, in this month you have 31 days right where 7 days in a week and 31/7 (3 will be quotient) 3 is nothing but odd days.
Yog said:
(Wed, Sep 22, 2010 01:31:20 PM)
In 1 year there are 365days which year is non leap year.
365/7(to calculate number of weeks)
=52 is quotient and 1 is reminder(this is odd day)
This means for a non leap year there are 52 weeks and 1day.
Ajay said:
(Mon, Oct 4, 2010 12:55:38 PM)
Why odd days for 1600 and 400 are zero? Thank you in advance.
Nitesh Nandwana said:
(Sun, Oct 10, 2010 08:57:07 AM)
@Ajay.
If you divide 1600 and 400 by 4 then reminder is nothing that's why odd days are zero. If reminder is 1 then odd day=1 and if reminder is 2 then odd days=2 is it ok ?.
Jatin said:
(Fri, Oct 22, 2010 02:54:36 PM)
Why we have choose 1600 and 400 years separetely?
Amiya,Pradeep said:
(Thu, Oct 28, 2010 03:31:40 AM)
What the meaning of odd day?
K.Ramaraju said:
(Tue, Nov 9, 2010 05:43:03 AM)
Why odd days for 1600 and 400 are zero?
Ellappan.V said:
(Wed, Dec 1, 2010 05:02:23 AM)
Why odd days for 1600 and 400 are zero
Sachin said:
(Sun, Dec 5, 2010 11:45:00 PM)
Why we write 1600 and 400 odd days here?
Arun Anoop M said:
(Tue, Dec 7, 2010 01:55:03 AM)
What was the day of the week on 28th May, 2006?
Leave 1600,400
it's odd day is zero
----
5=(5/4)leap yr+[5-1]ordinary day
=1 leap year+4 ordinary day
=1*2+4
=6 odd day
---------
Jan Feb Mar Apr May
31 28 31 30 28 ->total->148days->21weeks+1odd day
->1 odd day
Total=0+0+6+1
=7 odd day
Sun Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri Sat
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
7
Day is Sunday.
By Arun Anoop M,MTech IT,Kalasalingam University,TamilNadu.
Geetha said:
(Tue, Dec 7, 2010 03:24:15 PM)
Can you explain it briefly.
Sree said:
(Wed, Dec 8, 2010 05:04:29 AM)
Can you explain briefly.
Ansari said:
(Sun, Dec 19, 2010 10:53:02 AM)
@arun i cant get it pls explain it brief...
Snehal said:
(Fri, Dec 31, 2010 05:26:24 AM)
What is this odd day?
Can you explain it to me?
Hemlatasharma said:
(Tue, Jan 4, 2011 11:24:33 AM)
What is the odd day please explain briefly.
M.Vamshi said:
(Thu, Jan 13, 2011 12:08:15 PM)
Is there any easiest method to calculate day plz i cant understood the odd day or even day
Senthil said:
(Wed, Feb 2, 2011 01:13:06 PM)
The number of days more than the complete weeks are called ODD DAYS....
In 400,1600,2000 odd days are zero...
****************************************************************
Day of the week on 28th may 2006,
In 2006,
Jan 31days+Feb 28days+Mar 31days+Apr 30days+May 28days[bcz 28th may]= 148days [totally]
formula=day+month no.+(x-1900)+(x-1900)/4
x= the year we have to calculate
Eg:
28-may-2006
for=28+2+(2006-1900)+(2006-1900)/4
=28+2+16+16/4
=28+2+16+4 note:
=50 (here we should not take the no
behind decimal i.e 17/4=4.25)
50/7=1(reminder)
sun =1
Priya said:
(Wed, May 18, 2011 10:36:55 PM)
@senthil
Why should we consider 2001-2005? they have specified only 2006.
Dev said:
(Mon, May 30, 2011 07:06:23 AM)
@Deena
How come 2006-1900=16 can you tell me ?
John said:
(Tue, May 31, 2011 05:20:44 AM)
Its wrong the 2006-1900 is 106.
Praveena said:
(Sat, Jun 4, 2011 06:14:42 AM)
How it possible 2006-1900=16 do you explain.
Karthik said:
(Fri, Jun 24, 2011 02:40:53 AM)
@Senthil...
gr8 yaar...your explanation s chanceless...
G.M.L.Genatus said:
(Mon, Jun 27, 2011 05:49:40 PM)
Every 400 years we consider as 0.
So 1200,1600,2000,2400 years take it as 0 value.
Kanakam said:
(Tue, Jun 28, 2011 12:57:26 AM)
How it possible 2006-1900=16 ........?
Ankita said:
(Wed, Jul 20, 2011 11:50:27 PM)
Why there is 1900 in above mentioned explanation?
Ankita said:
(Wed, Jul 20, 2011 11:58:19 PM)
Why we have taken 1600 and 400 years only ? why not other year?
Prajakta said:
(Tue, Aug 9, 2011 02:29:14 PM)
Nice Solution Deena...
Revathi said:
(Sat, Aug 27, 2011 03:05:22 PM)
Pavithra your example is wrong. 2006-1900=106 its not 16.
Yasar said:
(Tue, Sep 13, 2011 07:01:14 PM)
Please explain how the odd days of 400 and 1600 are 0 and the odd days of 300 is 15.
Priya said:
(Mon, Sep 19, 2011 01:19:14 PM)
Yes revathi I'm agree with you. Pavithra your example is wrong.
2006-1900=106 its not 16. If ok can you explain.
Divya said:
(Tue, Sep 20, 2011 09:40:08 PM)
When we divide the number of days of a year with 7 it gives the number complete weeks in that year,and the reminder of this gives the number of days which are remaining in the year.these days are called as odd days (i.e.an incomplete week).
One year = number of complete weeks+number of odd days.
Venkat said:
(Sun, Oct 16, 2011 04:41:24 PM)
I am not getting this odd days. Total number of odd days = (0 + 0 + 6 + 1) = 7 0 odd day.
Can you please explaine me?
Naveen said:
(Tue, Oct 18, 2011 10:53:24 AM)
Hello friends,
I think I have a better sollution. (I haven't read earlier sollutions, so if it is already here, then sorry and credit to the earlier post)
Remember this code for months
622503514624 (Jan, Feb, March,....Dec, for common years)
512503514624 (for leap years, jan code will be 5 and Feb code will be 1, that is the only difference in this code, It should be easy as we remember lots of mobile nos)
Then you'll have to remember years code.
for example 2011 year code will be 6
11+(leap years in 1st 11 years = 2)
so, 11+2 = 13/7, remains 6,the year code (for 2012, year code will be 1 (12+3= 15/7, remains 1)
Days code will be 0 for Sunday, 1 for Monday..like that!
For calculating day the formula is
Year code + month code + date
for example 18th October 2011
year code (6)+month code (6) + date (18)= 6+6+18 = 30/7..remains 2 means Tuesday
Do remember please, you'll be adding extra 0 for centuries divisible by 400 (say 2000), 5 for next century (2100), 3 for another next (2200) and 1 for just after that century (2300), and then 0 agian for 2400!
PS: I'm sorry but I'm not very good in explaining things. But this formula is doing wonders for me! Any help in this case..please contact me naveen.dhanerwal(at)gmail.com
Have a nice day!
Janvi said:
(Mon, Oct 31, 2011 09:27:32 AM)
2011 year code will be 6. How can you explain this ?
Chinna said:
(Wed, Nov 2, 2011 10:15:36 PM)
Please explain me clearly. I am totally confused.
Jugal said:
(Fri, Nov 4, 2011 10:42:51 AM)
I am totally confused in calander question. Then please expain in a easy lang if any one can.
Amita said:
(Sat, Nov 5, 2011 01:54:47 PM)
Thank you so much Arun Anoop very nice.
Satish Mohan said:
(Sun, Nov 6, 2011 11:49:04 PM)
Hi Naveen thank you for your information.
Your method is good I like this method.
Please tell me how to know this method and give me some ideas.
Meenu said:
(Sun, Dec 25, 2011 01:35:14 PM)
Hi All,
Deena s solution is correct. Its 106 not 16... But try to substitute 106 instead of 16.. We are getting the same answer. I tried with some other questions also,its working.. Good Solution Deena.... Thanks :-)
Ajay said:
(Thu, Jan 5, 2012 10:07:41 AM)
Deena's solution is correct just take 106 instead of 16 106/4 you will get quotient 26 and remainder 2 leave the remainder and take 26 you will get the right answer.
6 odd days
148 days = (21 weeks + 1 day)